Are there any saints who died with baptism of desire

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AugustTherese:
Baptism of John.

Not sacramental baptism.
Jesus baptized using the ‘Baptism of John’?
 
Jesus baptized using the ‘Baptism of John’?
Two thoughts:
(1) Jesus didn’t baptize. Read your quote of John 4 a bit more carefully. 😉

(2) Yes. Prior to Jesus’ death and resurrection, there was no sacrament of baptism that was celebrated. Think about it: if there was the sacrament of baptism, and a person died in a state of grace prior to Jesus’ death and resurrection, wouldn’t they merit heaven? (Unlike those who were in the ‘Bosom of Abraham’, who were righteous but could not attain to heaven on their own.) . But, we know that Jesus ‘opened the gates of heaven’ after His death. So… either the sacrament does what it does, or it doesn’t. We can only resolve this issue if we recognize that the celebration of the sacraments by the Church only began after the Passion and Resurrection of Christ.
 
After this Jesus and his disciples went into the Judean countryside, and he spent some time there with them and baptized .
John 3:22
John 4 clarifies this statement. Note that, in the context of John 3, the baptisms happen “in the Judean region”, and that, in the context of John 4, Jesus leaves Judea.

John 4, therefore, clarifies: in Judea, it was Jesus’ disciples – not Jesus – who were baptizing.
 
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AugustTherese:
After this Jesus and his disciples went into the Judean countryside, and he spent some time there with them and baptized .
John 3:22
John 4 clarifies this statement. Note that, in the context of John 3, the baptisms happen “in the Judean region”, and that, in the context of John 4, Jesus leaves Judea.

John 4, therefore, clarifies: in Judea, it was Jesus’ disciples – not Jesus – who were baptizing.
Now a discussion about purification arose between John’s disciples and a Jew. They came to John and said to him, ‘Rabbi, the one who was with you across the Jordan, to whom you testified, here he is baptizing, and all are going to him.
John 3:25-26

You are equivocating to the point where you cannot accept the fact that Our Lord and His disciples were baptizing; before the death and resurrection of Our Lord and way before Pentecost.
 
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You are equivocating to the point where you cannot accept the fact that Our Lord and His disciples were baptizing; before the death and resurrection of Our Lord and way before Pentecost.
Nah. I get it – neither of us wants to let go of the argument. But hey, if you can’t accept what John 4 says about the events of John 3, then I guess we disagree about who’s ‘equivocating.’ 😉

In any case, we’re getting away from the point: sacramental baptism by the Church did not begin until after Christ’s resurrection.
 
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AugustTherese:
You are equivocating to the point where you cannot accept the fact that Our Lord and His disciples were baptizing; before the death and resurrection of Our Lord and way before Pentecost.
Nah. I get it – neither of us wants to let go of the argument. But hey, if you can’t accept what John 4 says about the events of John 3, then I guess we disagree about who’s ‘equivocating.’ 😉
If you’re trying to tell me that the disciples baptized and Our Lord did not, I think you might need to rethink your position.
 
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If you’re trying to tell me that the disciples baptized and Our Lord did not, I think you might need to rethink your position.
I’m trying to tell you that Scripture is pretty explicit in what it claims, in contradiction to what you’re claiming:

“Now when Jesus learned that the Pharisees had heard that Jesus was making and baptizing more disciples than John (although Jesus himself was not baptizing, just his disciples), he left Judea and returned to Galilee.” (John 4:1-3)

It’s not that difficult a case to make. Jesus was ‘baptizing’ inasmuch as His disciples were doing the baptizing – they ascribed the baptisms to Jesus, since He was the one instructing his disciples, and it was to Him that people were therefore flocking. Doesn’t mean that Jesus was physically doing it Himself. You literally have to throw away John 4 (and its reference to the actions in John 3) to make the assertion you’re making. :roll_eyes:
 
You literally have to throw away John 4 (and its reference to the actions in John 3) to make the assertion you’re making.
“But we must believe that the disciples of Christ were already baptized themselves, either with John’s baptism, or, as is more probable, with Christ’s. For He who had stooped to the humble service of washing His disciples’ feet, had not failed to administer baptism to His servants, who would thus be enabled in their turn to baptize others.” - Saint Augustine

“ The question is often asked, whether the Holy Ghost was given by the baptism of the disciples; when below it is said, The Holy Ghost was not yet given, because Jesus was not yet glorified. We reply, that the Spirit was given, though not in so manifest a way as he was after the Ascension, in the shape of fiery tongues. For, as Christ Himself in His human nature ever possessed the Spirit, and yet afterwards at His baptism the Spirit descended visibly upon Him in the form of a dove; so before the manifest and visible coming of the Holy Spirit, all saints might possess the Spirit secretly.” - Saint Alcuin
 
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Gorgias:
You literally have to throw away John 4 (and its reference to the actions in John 3) to make the assertion you’re making.
“But we must believe that the disciples of Christ were already baptized themselves, either with John’s baptism, or, as is more probable, with Christ’s. For He who had stooped to the humble service of washing His disciples’ feet, had not failed to administer baptism to His servants, who would thus be enabled in their turn to baptize others.” - Saint Augustine
Do you have a link to the context in which he wrote this? After all, Augustine could be claiming that Jesus baptized them after His resurrection, and that would be just fine.

But, if you want to have an Augustine quote duel, then let’s have at it:
It may perhaps surprise you why it is said, that Jesus baptized more than John; and after this was said, it is subjoined, although Jesus baptized not, but His disciples. What then? Was the statement made false, and then corrected by this addition? Or, are both true, viz. that Jesus both did and also did not baptize? He did in fact baptize, because it was He that cleansed; and He did not baptize, because it was not He that touched. The disciples supplied the ministry of the body; He afforded the aid of His majesty.
In other words, what I just said a couple of posts ago: Jesus didn’t physically baptize. In his tracts on the Gospel of John, Augustine agrees with me. (Woot!)
before the manifest and visible coming of the Holy Spirit, all saints might possess the Spirit secretly.” - Saint Alcuin
Alcuin? Seriously? That’s how far you had to reach? 🤣

Yeah… to assent to that, I guess I have to ignore Scripture yet again:
John 7:37-39:
On the last and greatest day of the feast, Jesus stood up and exclaimed, “Let anyone who thirsts come to me and drink. Whoever believes in me, as scripture says:

‘Rivers of living water will flow from within him.’”

He said this in reference to the Spirit that those who came to believe in him were to receive. There was, of course, no Spirit yet, because Jesus had not yet been glorified.
Man… you must really hate the Gospel of John, eh? 😦
 
LOL! It just dawned on me: did you lift these quotes from the Catena Aurea? The Augustine and Alcuin appear one after another there!

OK, then – I’ll see your Augustine and Alcuin, and raise you Chrystostom (from the same section of the Catena):
Chrystostom:
Christ Himself did not baptize, but those who reported the fact, in order to raise the envy of their hearers, so represented it as to appear that Christ Himself baptized. The reason why He baptized not Himself, had already been declared by John, He shall baptize you with the Holy Ghost and with fire. (Luke 3:16) . Now He had not yet given the Holy Spirit: it was therefore fitting that He should not baptize. But His disciples baptized, as an efficacious mode of instruction. … Their baptism, however, had no more virtue than the baptism of John; both being without the grace of the Spirit, and both having one object, viz. that of bringing men to Christ.
 
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LOL! It just dawned on me: did you lift these quotes from the Catena Aurea ? The Augustine and Alcuin appear one after another there!

OK, then – I’ll see your Augustine and Alcuin, and raise you Chrystostom (from the same section of the Catena ):
Yeah, it’s a moot subject.
 
This thread has somehow derailed. The Catechism clearly states,
1226 From the very day of Pentecost the Church has celebrated and administered holy Baptism.
Baptism as a sacrament was NOT instituted prior to Pentecost. If it had been, then Peter would not have been re-baptizing people who had already been baptized by John the Baptist. End of debate.
 
Getting back to the original thread topic

The Catechism states:
1258 The Church has always held the firm conviction that those who suffer death for the sake of the faith without having received Baptism are baptized by their death for and with Christ. This Baptism of blood, like the desire for Baptism, brings about the fruits of Baptism without being a sacrament.

1259 For catechumens who die before their Baptism, their explicit desire to receive it, together with repentance for their sins, and charity, assures them the salvation that they were not able to receive through the sacrament.
Therefore, martyrs who die for the Faith before they can be properly baptized (such as St. Genesius who underwent a mock baptism with an actor playing a priest, St. Drosis the daughter of Trajan, and St. Emerentiana) are considered “baptized by blood”. Obviously there are a lot of saints in this group.

Catechumens who desired baptism but died in any way other than martyrdom before receiving it are considered “baptized by desire”. There are probably souls in heaven who were baptized in this way. However, I am having difficulty locating any saints other than St. Dismas (see below) who fall in this category though, because:
  • The vast majority of “unbaptized saints” came to the attention of the Church because they were martyred, so they fall under “baptism of blood”;
  • The Church is reluctant to state definitively that a particular saint in historic times (as opposed to modern times) was definitely not baptized, as we often don’t have complete records to show that they definitely weren’t. If a catechumen was dying in a way that was not sudden, he might well have been baptized as an emergency measure because he was in danger of death and wanted to be baptized.
St. Dismas was the classic example of the “baptism of desire” since the sacrament of Baptism hadn’t been instituted yet and he definitely wasn’t dying for the faith.
 
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Baptism as a sacrament was NOT instituted prior to Pentecost.
Watch out – this is where I got into trouble with @AugustTherese! 🤣

Do you mean instituted as in “instituted by Christ”? Or do you mean celebrated as in “celebrated by the Church as a sacrament”? I think you and I would hold to both of these claims, but some would claim both instituted and celebrated prior to Pentecost, and that’s where the disagreement lies. 🤷‍♂️
 
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