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Episcopalian2004
Guest
I don’t know mate. Like I said I’m not that religious, but you could ask someone higher up.
Catholic theology is consistent with this . . .In Judaism a diseased fetus which threatens the life of its carrier is regarded as a “gollum” and the woman is legally entitled to defend herself against it, using deadly force if necessary.
This is the argument that is usually used, but I don’t think the text of XXV supports it. It gives a definition of “sacrament,” then states that the remaining five don’t meet that definition. Even if there’s perhaps some wiggle room within it to say that there are two Dominical sacraments and five non-Dominical sacraments, I don’t think that’s what’s meant by the text at all. I think to get that reading of it, you have to take Newman’s view – that what matters is that you can make the article mean the orthodox position, not that the article was written to mean the orthodox position. Fortunately, as you say, the laity are not bound by the Articles.As to XXV, remember the basic Anglican position (if you chose the correct Anglican) that the seven are divided into the Dominical 2 and the remaining 5. Two established by our Lord. Makes seven, in all.
Doesn’t the article say “for that they have not any visible sign or ceremony ordained of God” rather than simply “no physical sign”? In other words, in the distinction the article is making, no physical sign ordained within Scripture?Article XXV contradicts itself. It says that the five sacraments besides baptism and the Eucharist are not sacraments because they lack an associated physical sign.
It does say that, yes. But for that to apply to some of them, we have to reject that the Epistles are the Word of God, because they at the very least explicitly mention anointing with oil for unction.HopkinsReb:
Doesn’t the article say “for that they have not any visible sign or ceremony ordained of God” rather than simply “no physical sign”?Article XXV contradicts itself. It says that the five sacraments besides baptism and the Eucharist are not sacraments because they lack an associated physical sign. In other words, in the distinction the article is making, no physical sign ordained within Scripture?
The Article distinguishes between sacraments “ordained of Christ” / “ordained of God” and others. My reading is that this is the distinction it is making that gives particular force to Christ’s actions in the Gospels. But your view has, of course, merit.But for that to apply to some of them, we have to reject that the Epistles are the Word of God, because they at the very least explicitly mention anointing with oil for unction.
Sure, though I’ll note that your quote I was responding to said “ordained within Scripture,” not “ordained within the Gospels.”HopkinsReb:
The Article distinguishes between sacraments “ordained of Christ” / “ordained of God” and others. My reading is that this is the distinction it is making that gives particular force to Christ’s actions in the Gospels. But your view has, of course, merit.But for that to apply to some of them, we have to reject that the Epistles are the Word of God, because they at the very least explicitly mention anointing with oil for unction.
So it did, so it did. Fair enough.I’ll note that your quote I was responding to said “ordained within Scripture,” not “ordained within the Gospels.”
Would the Continuum priests say two sacraments, or seven?but the ACNA priests I know all say there are exactly two sacraments.