Baptism... And the True Church

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Notworthy,

In my historical research I have seen 300 year old tombstones that were barely legible, I doubt that all of the headstones you are referring to are any more legible than the ones I have seen.

And even if they are, and they do indicate that the infant or toddler was baptized, I can only say that it was a result of ignorance and not a true understanding of baptism…

John
www.gideonsword.net
Yes, but in your historical research have you also seen 2000 year old tombstone that were legible. Just because some are worn away doesn’t mean all are worn away.

This is not a good proof, John.

And, you’re saying that there were 5 baptism in the Bible? There were only two indicated in the NT times. The Baptism by John that everyone understands was just a symbol, for Paul and others re-baptized them. But the Baptism “in the Name of Jesus Christ” was the initiation into the Christian community. This is the ONLY BAPTISM that the early Church on down to the Chrurch today has ever used since Jesus death on the Cross.

And let’s go back to you’re original thesis, at least according to Jemfinch. Correct me if this is wrong:
  1. That age-restrictive baptism is the only baptism practiced in the Bible.
  2. That age-restrictive baptism has been the practice of the Church since the beginning. Please offer significant historical and patristic evidence to support your thesis.
So now you’re claiming that, “OK, they may have done it, but they were obviously in error”?!? That’s a pretty powerful and authoritative statement, there John.
 
allow me to refute this arrongant refutaion:

from your website
"So, the circumcision, being a token of the covenant, is a picture of what the covenant was. But, the token doesn’t mean anything to someone who doesn’t understand what the token represents. The token of the circumcision represented a changed heart; it is an illustration of repentance. "

** So what the heretic who wrote this blasphemy is saying**, is that, If God gives us a command , that it is just symbolic and not necassary to follow, if we don’t understand it the command. So therefore retards, children, and illiterates are not included into God’s Covenant’s. Maybe only well educated white people according to ths author.
Guys? Fellow Christians? Fellow Catholics?

Do you think we can treat John (bibleapologist) with the same respect that he’s been treating us? Sure we disagree with his analysis, but please remember that he’s a Christian like us, and treat him like one. Heck, even if he weren’t Christian, he still deserves our Christian charity.

OK, now back to the thread!!!
 
This verse alone verifies the existence of more than one Baptism mentioned in the Bible.
No, it doesn’t. Not that I would disagree with such an assertion (baptism is sometimes used metaphorically) but this verse does not at all verify or establish that fact.
According to Peter, there is a baptism that is the “putting away the filth of the flesh”
No, that’s not what Peter says. Peter says, “Baptism now saves you, not as a removal of dirt from the body, but as an appeal to God for a good conscience.” Peter is talking about how baptism saves: he says that it does not save by cleansing dirt from the body, but by making an appeal to God for a good (clean) conscience.

What you’ve done is you’ve taken your beliefs, analyzed them, and determined that you need different kinds of baptism in order to support them, and read that into this passage. This passage talks about the mode of operation of baptism: it cleanses the flesh, and it cleanses the soul. This passage emphasizes that the latter form is how baptism saves us, not the former.

Since you misinterpret this fundamental fact of the passage (that it is one in the same baptism by water that both cleanses the flesh and is the appeal to God for a good conscience), the rest of your argument crumbles.
This Baptism that Jesus spoke of was not His baptism in the Jordan river, but a future baptism that He was going to experience…
Jesus was clearly speaking of baptism as a purification He had to undergo, rather than the Christian rite of baptism in water.

(Incidentally, minor bit of forum etiquette: If you’re just quoting a small portion of Scripture, just use “quotes” rather than the forum markup ( quote ] ) for it: things you “quote” show up when a person writes a reply to your post; things you quote ] do not, and it’s harder for others to keep track of the conversation when your biblical quotes are lost. )
The baptism that Jesus was going to be baptized with, was the death, burial and resurrection of His body… which He had previously affirmed to the Apostles that they would also experience. And the Apostle Paul associates himself with this baptism, and tells the Romans that they have also experienced this baptism…
This Baptism IS salvation… it is following Jesus through His death, burial and resurrection by; forsaking the bondage of sin and trusting Jesus as the propitiation for your sins (death and burial), and Jesus will give you new life (resurrection).
Paul is talking about the Christian rite of baptism in water here; he’s not talking about some abstract “purification” like Jesus spoke of. You have no justification for claiming otherwise; Romans 6 has always been interpreted to refer to water baptism (especially by Baptists, who like to use it as a “prooftext” to show the necessity of baptism by immersion).
To be baptized in Christ is to be dead to self, and alive unto God (verse 10).
Yes, to be baptized into Christ is to be made dead to self, and made alive to God: the rite itself confers those graces.

Jeremy
 
Since Matthew 28:19 calls for baptizing “all”, the Pedo-baptists assume this statement to include infants.
A strawman: no paedo-baptist I know of has ever argued from the “all” in Matthew 28:19.
This is a rediculous assertion, since the verse does not implicate “everyone” in the entire world…
Yes, it is ridiculous, but you’re the only one who’s making it!
only those who are taught.
Now you’re adding your own interpretation to the passage.
Mat 28:20 Teaching them to observe all things whatsoever I have commanded you:
Are infants really able to observe all things whatsoever Jesus has commanded us?
The passage doesn’t say to baptize only those who can be taught; it says to baptize them, and to teach them. Of course, any Church or ecclesial community which baptizes infants does so only after committing to teach them to obey what Jesus commanded.
The “Great Commission” does not make baptism obligatory
It’s just as obligatory as going out and making disciples. It’s just as obligatory as teaching. You have no justification for saying it’s somehow less obligatory than all the other commands Jesus gave there.
baptism here in verse 19, to be harmonious with the Gospel would be requisite only upon faith from consequent teaching.
And here you can see how “the ignorant and unstable distort the Scriptures, even to their own destruction.” The problem is that you don’t understand the Gospel, and so you interpret the rest of Scripture in light of the false Gospel that your forebears handed down to you. The historical and natural interpretation of Matthew 28:19 is not incompatible with the Gospel; it’s only inconsistent with the false gospel that you received, not from Paul or the Apostles, but from your denominational forerunners.
The only requirement for this baptism was that the eunuch believed with all his heart.
And, of course, disbelieving adults are certainly not to be baptized. But infants don’t disbelieve.
Here is the key: the eunuch said “I believe that Jesus Christ is the Son of God”.
Unfortunate that “the key” isn’t actually in the Bible, having been added only in later manuscripts.
He had already been baptized with the baptism of Jesus,
The baptism of Jesus was one of suffering and persecution. The Eunuch certainly wasn’t baptized with that baptism.
the eunuch was not asking for salvation, he already had that, he had a desire to submit to the ordinance of water-baptism, as saved people do.
And you’re just reading all that into the passage. There’s nothing in the passage to support this interpretation at all: it’s all conjecture, made only to convince yourself of the rectitude of the false gospel you received from those who taught you.
Baptism should never be administered to someone who has not received the truth in knowledge.
I seem to have missed that when I read the Bible.
In 1 Timothy 2:4, it is said about “God our Saviour”: “Who will have all men to be saved, and to come unto the knowledge of the truth.
Funny that Paul distinguishes between “be saved” and “come to the knowledge of the truth,” isn’t it? You’re claiming that they’re the same thing, but Paul very much makes a distinction between them, it seems.
Like Phillip, we should investigate whether one has come to the knowledge of truth, and has believed and surrendered to Christ in their heart.
Biblically, water baptism was administered as an outward profession of ones faith, after they had received Christ as their Saviour.
I don’t mean to be rude, but save us the sermon: this isn’t an argument, it’s merely a profession of your belief. We all know what you believe here: if you want to argue to support it, by all means, do so: but if you’re just going to make a sermon with no basis in the Bible, you’re wasting your time typing it and my time reading it.

Jeremy
 
If water were all that were necessary for salvation… why did Christ have to shed His Blood?
Again, you setup a strawman. NotWorthy didn’t say that, and no orthodox Catholic would say that. Stop arguing against things people don’t say.
This “water baptism” is not the one that saves us… it is the one that identifies us to the world as Christians,
Private baptisms of whole households in personal dwellings in the middle of the night do not identify anyone to the world as Christians.
And even if they are, and they do indicate that the infant or toddler was baptized, I can only say that it was a result of ignorance and not a true understanding of baptism…
In AD90, years before John would die and just over two decades after both Peter and Paul died in Rome? That’s barely plausible, let alone completely unsupported by history.

I’m still waiting on your historical evidence. Surely, if the practice of the apostles was age-restrictive baptism by immserion, there should be some debate, shouldn’t there? Where is the debate? Where is the first century, second century, third century, etc. arguments concerning the heretical practical infant baptism? Where is the debate about whether baptism by sprinkling or pouring is valid? If you say that the Church as founded by the Apostles has taught this since the beginning, when did it change, and why was there no discussion of this change? Why was there no record at all of anyone ever teaching what you now teach prior to the sixteenth century?
The Bible says it is through faith (not sacraments) that we receive God’s grace…
“Baptism now saves you.” It’s clearly and obviously talking about water baptism, and it saves that it’s salvific. If salvation isn’t a reception of God’s grace, I don’t know what is.

Jeremy
 
Eden,
Nowhere in scriptures is there any indication that all baptisms were performed by immersion. In fact, given the desert environment of the Holy Land there would have been many situations in which immersion would have been impossible.
I actually had a conversation with Karl Keating regarding this subject and he said the same thing…

Actually, on the day of Pentecost there were 3,000 people baptized… all in one day. Let’s take a look at this event…

There were 120 people who were in the upper room on the day of Pentecost. Of those 120 it would be safe to say that at least half were men. If those 60 men were involved in baptizing the new converts each man would have had only 50 people to baptize.

But, let’s look at the other extreme scenario. Let’s say that only the Apostles did the baptizing. Since there were 11 Apostles, each Apostle would have had to baptize 273 converts each.

Either scenario is not out of the question, the only question remains… where they would baptize those people in such a desert area… Since they were in Jerusalem, there would have been “pools” that would have sufficed for baptizing in full immersion: the sheep pool, the pool of bethesda, the north pool, the south pool, the serpent’s pool, pool of Siloam and it’s lower pool. That’s seven different pools they could have used to baptize in, and each of these pools were large enough for several people to administer baptisms in.

Now for the time frame… it typically takes about 30 seconds to baptize a person; by the time they walk into the water, make a profession of faith, and are baptized. According to that timeframe, 2 people per minute could have been baptized…

If the Apostles were baptizing alone, it would have taken about 2 hrs. and 17 minutes to baptize 3000 converts. If 60 men were doing the baptizing (which is unlikely) it would have taken about half an hour to complete the job.

Either way, it could have very well been done, and it wouldn’t have been as much work as the average man in that day would have been used to.

John
www.gideonsword.net
 
I’m still waiting on your historical evidence. Surely, if the practice of the apostles was age-restrictive baptism by immserion, there should be some debate, shouldn’t there? Where is the debate? Where is the first century, second century, third century, etc. arguments concerning the heretical practical infant baptism? Where is the debate about whether baptism by sprinkling or pouring is valid? If you say that the Church as founded by the Apostles has taught this since the beginning, when did it change, and why was there no discussion of this change? Why was there no record at all of anyone ever teaching what you now teach prior to the sixteenth century?
I’m going to quote myself here, because there’s something additional I want to add.

One my fundamental problems with your theology of baptism (apart from its lack of biblical support) or with other Protestant doctrinal distinctives, such as Sola Fide, is that fundamentally, they’re crackpot ideas.

Yes, I mean “crackpot,” but in the nicest way possible. I used to work with a man who seriously thought the moon landings were faked. He simply couldn’t understand how it was possible that we could fly to the moon in 1969, but we couldn’t save New Orleans from Katrina in 2005. Because of this lack of understanding (among others) he decided that the whole Neil Armstrong thing was a complete and utter fabrication. One small step for a man, one giant leap for conspiracy theorists everywhere.

I feel like I’m encountering the same sort of crackpot ideas here, and in other discussions with Protestants (for instance, my dad, who believes that “elders” must be married). When I ask for historical support for your beliefs, or for my dad’s beliefs, I never get a response. I never get a response because, I think, you know what that response would sound like. You know you would sound just like that guy I worked with who thought that the moon landings were a cleverly-crafted propoganda hoax.

You would have to say, “There isn’t any historical evidence.” I would ask, “Why is there no historical evidence, if this is what the Apostles taught?” You would have to say, “Because the Catholic Church destroyed it all,” or perhaps, “Because the True Church went into hiding to avoid persecution by the Catholic Church,” and then you’ve descended into the realm of the lunar-lander-denying, Roswell-believing, Oliver-Stone-following conspiracy theorists of the world.

Or you might believe in Baptist successionism, in which case I’d say, “Well, who were the first baptists,” to which you’d reply, perhaps, the Paulicians, and I’d point out everything the Paulicians taught that you don’t believe, and again, you’ve got no historical support for your beliefs.

Proving Protestant doctrinal distinctives from history seem to require a person to invoke a conspiracy in order to explain the almost complete and utter lack of historical evidence for those distinctives, and that’s probably my biggest problem with your ideas: I’ve never been one for conspiracy theories.

Jeremy
 
Either way, it could have very well been done, and it wouldn’t have been as much work as the average man in that day would have been used to.
It’s never been about the amount of time it would take; it’s always been about the repercussions of commandeering a pool for 3,000 baptisms. It just wouldn’t be likely to have happened.

Jeremy
 
Gareth,
Isn’t there somewhere in the bible where it says that a guys ‘whole household’ was baptised? Doesn’t that mean probably children as well?
Yes, it does say that. And yes that means that probably his children were baptized as well, and his wife… but this does not prove covenant theology. We could also say that his wife and children had probably also believed and were saved.

We can’t take passages like the one you are referencing out of context, and the context is the entire Bible. It is necessary to compare this passage with other passages to arrive at a conclusion.

To take Acts 18, and the account of Crispus’ household being baptized and claim that verse alone verifies “covenant theology” is very irresponsible… in fact, because we are not told that there are any infants or toddlers in the household of Crispus at this time, and we are not told whether the rest of Cripus’ household believed and were saved… it would be presumptuous to assert that they were either infants, or believers… we have to consult other passages to ascertain the biblical qualifications for baptism.

You won’t find an infant being baptized, and you will only find believers being baptized.
Isn’t it true that the founder of the baptist church baptized himself? Thats not in the bible…
I think you’re talking about Roger Williams, that is why there is contention over what is truly the first Baptist church in America.
I write this as one who was baptized by full immersion, then changed chruch and was Confirmed into it. I would never dream of saying that my brothers and sisters who were baptised by this method had somehow had an invalid conversion experience. Wake up to yourself.
Neither do I Gareth. No one knows for sure if they were saved… even if they were baptized by immersion. Baptism is not the saving act, faith in Christ is what saves us… Like I said, baptism is only an outward profession of that faith (consult post #18).

John
www.gideonsword.net
 
It’s never been about the amount of time it would take; it’s always been about the repercussions of commandeering a pool for 3,000 baptisms. It just wouldn’t be likely to have happened.

Jeremy
I may be ignortant, here (and yes, that can be considered the understatement of the year!), but weren’t these pools used to draw water for the residents of Jerusalem? Wouldn’t the said residents have a problem with these pools being used to fully immerse 3000 people?!?
 
The garg,

Yes, I take ownership of it… because I wrote it. And I stand by it, here’s why…

I said in that article, “the token doesn’t mean anything to someone who doesn’t understand what the token represents”. The token, is not intended as a sign for one who is under the covenant to see… but rather for others to see and identify that person as one who is under the covenant (Gen. 17:14)…

Likewise, since water baptism is related to circumcision, it is an outward sign to identify that person who is “already under the covenant” as a Christian. As far as the Abrahamic covenant goes, those 8 day old boys were already under the covenant because they were the “seed of Abraham”, and God had promised to be their God (Gen. 17:7).

Since circumcision is the act of putting off the filth of the flesh, and baptism is related to circumcision… it is obvious that baptism is an act of repentance (putting off the filth of the flesh).

This is the other Baptism that is contrasted by Peter in 1 Peter 3:21…

This “water baptism” is not the one that saves us… it is the one that identifies us to the world as Christians, and it is the act of repentance, not so much the water that is relevant. But we obey Christ by being baptized as our first act of obedience to Him (which again, is the illustration of the spiritual baptism we have already experienced).

John
www.gideonsword.net
do you see how you lump two seprate things together as if they were one? …the water is the outward sign…the baptism, be it by blood, water, or desire is REQUIRED for salvation…why? …God said so…why do you refute the book by which you live?

you error in your understanding of covenants, and you still haven’t addressed callling God a Liar, which is what you did.

your making it far more complicated than it has to be. No long winded explanations are necassary…“go forth and baptize and make deciples of all nations.” …pretty cut and dried…now you question whether or not we should include our children into God’s Govenant? hah…not a hard decision for me.
 
The garg,

I would refer to the verses Black Knight quoted…

Since Matthew 28:19 calls for baptizing “all”, the Pedo-baptists assume this statement to include infants. **This is a rediculous assertion, since the verse does not implicate “everyone” in the entire world… only those who are taught. **
:rotfl: :rotfl:

is this your professional opinoin, or is it divine revelation.??

you need to study more than just your limited bible, and baptist documents.

my advise would be to study the culture of the day. they never left their kids out of ANYTHING that the Commanded them to do…your answer could also be found in the accont of the “feeding the 5000”…

i am done with this, sorry…it has been expertly,and plainly explained, and all you can retort with is "opinoin’ non-authorative] , and manipulative argumentation intended to sidestep obvious major points

Good Luck.
 
Since this verse is speaking of Baptism saving us, and this baptism not being the one that is “putting away the filth of the flesh”, it can only be the baptism that is an answer of a good conscience toward God.
It is strange but my translation (revised standard veirson) says that baptism is an appeal to God for a clear conscience. That’s something different from what you says.

“Baptism, which corresponds to this, now saves you, not as a removal of dirt from the body but as an appeal to God for a clear conscience, through the resurrection of Jesus Christ.”
 
It is strange but my translation (revised standard veirson) says that baptism is an appeal to God for a clear conscience. That’s something different from what you says.

“Baptism, which corresponds to this, now saves you, not as a removal of dirt from the body but as an appeal to God for a clear conscience, through the resurrection of Jesus Christ.”
Some older translations mistranslate the Greek word for “question, appeal” as “answer.”

Much like many liberal translations like to misranslate “hos” in John 3:16 as “so much.”

Jeremy
 
The Garg,
your making it far more complicated than it has to be. No long winded explanations are necassary…“go forth and baptize and make deciples of all nations.” …pretty cut and dried…now you question whether or not we should include our children into God’s Govenant? hah…not a hard decision for me.
I am not making the subject complicated, I am reasoning with you by rightly dividing the scripture.

The confusion comes by your fidiestic approach to Catholic Doctrine… “I believe it, therefore it is true”. Your approach to the subject matter is self-defeating because it eliminates God as the originator of truth, and gives yourself the status of infallibility.

You are ignoring my reason, and dismissing it as irrelevent because it doesn’t fit with your preconceived ideas… that is Neo-Platonism, and Neo-platonism has no place in theology. Neo-platonism dismisses truth as it proceeds from God, and embraces a notion of existential truth.

If you wish to continue the debate, and reason through the scripture, I am more than willing to engage in discussion on Covenant theology and how it relates to baptism. But the discussion will be fruitless unless you admit you are not God, and therefore not the originator of truth.

John
www.gideonsword.net
 
JanDurch,
It is strange but my translation (revised standard veirson) says that baptism is an appeal to God for a clear conscience. That’s something different from what you says.
If you compare the two translations you will find an obvious contradiction:
KJV 1 Peter 3:21 The like figure whereunto even baptism doth also now save us (not the putting away of the filth of the flesh, but the answer of a good conscience toward God,) by the resurrection of Jesus Christ:
RSV 1 Peter 3:21 Baptism, which corresponds to this, now saves you, not as a removal of dirt from the body but as an appeal to God for a clear conscience, through the resurrection of Jesus Christ,
One version reads that baptism is an “appeal”, and one version says that baptism is an “answer”. Which one do we believe? Is baptism an appeal to God to have a good conscience, or is baptism an answer, or something that is done after God has already cleared our conscience?

Well, according to the other verses I have quoted regarding baptism… it sounds like we should understand baptism to be an “answer of a good conscience toward God” since baptisms were always performed “after” the person had believed.

John
www.gideonsword.net
 
JanDurch,

If you compare the two translations you will find an obvious contradiction:

One version reads that baptism is an “appeal”, and one version says that baptism is an “answer”. Which one do we believe? Is baptism an appeal to God to have a good conscience, or is baptism an answer, or something that is done after God has already cleared our conscience?

Well, according to the other verses I have quoted regarding baptism… it sounds like we should understand baptism to be an “answer of a good conscience toward God” since baptisms were always performed “after” the person had believed.

John
www.gideonsword.net
What about in both translation there is the word “save”? Isn’t that the issue here?
 
The Garg,

I am not making the subject complicated, I am reasoning with you by rightly dividing the scripture.

The confusion comes by your fidiestic approach to Catholic Doctrine… “I believe it, therefore it is true”. Your approach to the subject matter is self-defeating because it eliminates God as the originator of truth, and gives yourself the status of infallibility.

You are ignoring my reason, and dismissing it as irrelevent because it doesn’t fit with your preconceived ideas… that is Neo-Platonism, and Neo-platonism has no place in theology. Neo-platonism dismisses truth as it proceeds from God, and embraces a notion of existential truth.

If you wish to continue the debate, and reason through the scripture, I am more than willing to engage in discussion on Covenant theology and how it relates to baptism. But the discussion will be fruitless unless you admit you are not God, and therefore not the originator of truth.

John
www.gideonsword.net
I really don’t like how you are painting catholics out to be there. It is not only erroneous, but insulting. John, in his post cites, “go forth and baptize the nations,” which is from scripture…will you please answer his question?
 
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