Many Christians believe the Bible to be inerrant and God-inspired. Although I realize these are 2 different things, there are plenty of questions that arise for both and some can be applied to both. If these things are indeed true then:
Quite often in this form there are posts that seem to be simply trying to stir the pot. This looks like one of them. But I’ll rise to the bait and “help” you out.
Inerrant, God inspired, etc.: One of the other responders already quoted Vatican II:
“… Scripture must be acknowledged as teaching firmly, faithfully and without error that truth which God wanted put into the sacred writing for the sake of our salvation” (Article 11, “Dogmatic Constitution on Divine Revelation”).
So what does that mean? As with almost all Vatican documents, it’s intentionally left a little vague. But let’s apply it to the beginning of Genesis, since that still is the cause of a lot of controversy. Is it necessary to believe God created the universe in 7 days “for the sake of salvation”? No. Is it necessary that God created the universe in the order written in Genesis “for the sake of salvation”? No. You could go on, but you get the idea. So what
is in the beginning of Genesis “for the sake of salvation”? #1–God created the universe. #2–creation is good #3–Adam and Eve disobeyed God and they and their descendants were punished. That’s about it.
- Why do we not have the original copies of the New Testament? Yes, many copies of the New Testament exist, more than any ancient book. However, the ones that do are copies of copies of copies. The first scrap of the Gospels that we have is P52, dated around 200AD, decades and decades from the original writings. Many others are much later. If God went through all of the trouble to inspire the Bible, wouldn’t he at least want his people to have the original copy? Would it have been that much trouble for God to preserve the original? There are other ancient writings where originals exist.
Let’s take your last sentence first: There are no other ancient writings from that period where the originals exist. The are exceptions like the Dead Sea Scrolls, but all the Greek and Latin literature we have comes from copies and copies of copies of copies. We don’t have the originals–or anything close to it–for any ancient Greek or Latin writings. Could God have preserved an original? Sure. It would have been a miracle. But that question is along the same lines as “Couldn’t God have made us all believe in Him?” Sure. But that eliminates free will.
And in fact God
did preserve the original–in the sense that the Church preserved the intended meaning.
- Why are there so many errors, discrepancies, contradictions in the Bible? Most Biblical scholars agree to this as virtually mere fact, except mainly strict fundamentalists, conservatives, and Evangelicals. If God inspired the writers, could he have not helped them divinely so they would not make these errors?
You are making a common error, esp. one our Protestant friends make. Catholic doctrine is based on both the tradition of the Church and on the New Testament. The Church validates the New Testament, not the other way around. Those who say the Church should only follow the New Testament are simply ignoring history. Which existed first, the Church or the New Testament? Clearly the Church, which began on Pentacost. The first books of the New Testament were the earliest epistles of Paul, which most scholars date to around 50 AD–almost 20 years after the beginning of the Church. And of course the last book of the NT, John, wasn’t written until about 90 AD. So yes, there are in fact about 30,000 “errors” in the various manuscripts of the New Testament. So what? The Church decides–and always has decided–what to accept and what to reject. If they made a “mistake” and accepted a copyist’s error or explanatory note as part of the accepted text, then it’s no longer a mistake, simply because the Church accepted it. Who is to say where inspiration begins and ends? Does it end with the original writer? Or does it extend to the Church’s acceptance of the text?
- Why were books written at a later date and then prescribed to be written by another author, who was much more well known at the time of Jesus? For example, most Bible scholars agree that Peter did not write 1 Peter or 2 Peter. Why? Two main reasons. First the date they were written, but mainly because Peter was an illiterate fisherman who certainly didn’t know how to write! Most agree that the Gospels were not written be Matthew, Mark, Luke, or John based on many reasons, but certainly by dates as well.
The actual authorship doesn’t matter–at all. See above. It’s the Church’s acceptance of these texts that validates them. So if you tell me St. Peter didn’t write the Epistle of Peter, I will answer “So what?”
And of course everyone agrees that the texts we have today were based on earlier written material. St. Paul often quotes early creeds and prayers in his epistles. It’s accepted by virtually all scholars that the authors of the Gospels (whoever they were) were using earlier written accounts. We can only guess at the dates of these earlier accounts. Again, it’s not the word-for-word writing that’s important, it’s the message they are meant to convey.
As for the authorship, it was a common practice at the time to write something and then attach the name of a well-known person to it. This seems fraudulent to us today, but in the 1st c. it was common practice. Again, it doesn’t matter.