When I asked: “Is it only Christians who can know ‘truth’”?", you responded:
So, that does eliminate 3/4 of the world from the possibility of salvation, according to your theology.
God prevents no one from knowing Christ.
But MUST they know Christ as we know him, or are there other ways? If you are right, what about all those who have never heard the teachings of Jesus, or were not Jews in earlier times? Are they out of luck? Why would God allow that?
I said: “In what I have read of other cultures and beliefs, I have found “truths”, many of which are very similar to the Christian versions. Where did those come from, if not from God?” Your response:
The Law, which is written on the heart and conscience of every man, woman, and child.
Ah-ha! The law, which comes from…God, right? So those truths have been revealed to people who have not been exposed to Jesus…so then why cannot they be saved if they accept and live according to those truths? Is God playing games with some people, giving them a part of the answer but not the whole thing? Teasing them, in a way?
I said: “Can God not speak to non-Christians? We know He has spoken to and through the Jews.”
Yes, He most certainly did, however, “Long ago, at many times and in many ways, God spoke to our fathers by the prophets, but in these last days he has spoken to us by his Son.”
ONLY spoken through His son? Are you sure? That is not what you indicate above. If that is so, why only speak to some, and not all? Is God that unfair? And then you apparently say that God no longer even speaks to the Jews, the Chosen, the people of the Covenant and of the religion of Jesus? WOW!
I asked: “Would God write off 3/4 of the world because they have not proclaimed Jesus as Lord?”
Obviously not, if He bled and died for all of humanity. If they reject the work of His Son, however, they will suffer the justice due them for their sins.
If Jesus did this, then (again) why not make that known to the whole world at once? God could do that, you know. So, if God speaks to others separately and they in turn embrace and live by God’s word (The Jews, Muslims, ??), but because they have not done so through Jesus that will be a sin? Whose sin? Why?
To my question about whether the keys to the Kingdom are available to a select few, you quoted:
“When I saw him, I fell at his feet as though dead. But he laid his right hand on me, saying, “Fear not, I am the first and the last, and the living one. I died, and behold I am alive forevermore, and I have the keys of Death and Hades.”
But He is apparently unwilling to share those keys, according to your theology. Heaven help us!
To my statement: “If that is what you believe, then you do not see the Christian God as the universal, all-encompassing God. You really see Him as the early Jews did, as their personal God who is stronger and better than the other gods. So much for monotheism”
You said:
Who is not a monotheist, the one who proclaims that there is One God and He is Father, Son, and Spirit, or the one who proclaims that Allah, Yaweh, Buddha, and Pan are all the same god?
Let’s think about this. On one hand we have the One God, but who is really three separate versions of God, and who can appear and act independent of each other? Okay. Compare that with God, Allah, Yahweh, different names for the same SINGLE deity. (We can leave out Buddha, since Guatama was a human being and a wisdom teacher, not a God; and Pan, who was one of the pantheon of Greek/Roman gods. Not in the same arena.) So, yes, if a monotheist is one who can claim the concept of one God in three persons, I see no problem with viewing God, Allah, Yahweh, and Elohim and other titular derivations as one and the same.
NOTE: There is an interesting old story by Arthur C. Clarke called “The Nine Billion Names of God.” The premise was that there were (are) that many different titles for the same Supreme Being, some of which were yet to be discovered. You can find it on-line (no longer under a copyright).