R
ralphinal
Guest
I have never liked nor understood the logic behind the Q theory. If they are similar, why could it no be because they were written by people who where there or those taught by them.
Duh
Duh
Ralph first there would have to be proof that the Q document exists or ever existed. Then we would question why wasn’t it canonized if it was considered inspired. The problem with using the Q document as a basis for an argument is that you are using an uninspired non-canonized work to correct canonized inspired gospels.I have never liked nor understood the logic behind the Q theory. If they are similar, why could it no be because they were written by people who where there or those taught by them.
Duh
You understand that I am opposed to the Q concept, right?Ralph first there would have to be proof that the Q document exists or ever existed. Then we would question why wasn’t it canonized if it was considered inspired. The problem with using the Q document as a basis for an argument is that you are using an uninspired non-canonized work to correct canonized inspired gospels.
This is also the issue with using the Vulgate bible vs the original texts. Jerome himself contends that the Hebrew and Greek originals of the OT and NT are always the works that are used to correct the copies. Not the other way around.
Oh maybe I misread your post. Sorry Ralph. My badYou understand that I am opposed to the Q concept, right?
I agree.
COUSIN? In the King James the same Greek word is translated as kinsfolk (Mark 6:4) and kinsman (Luke 2:44).Wrong. Luke used “cousin” to describe Mary’s loose kinship with Elizabeth. He would have used the same for Jesus’ brothers, if they were indeed simply near kin.
The canon of Scripture is not in the Bible. Does this mean it is a later invention?. We did not have the final list until towards the end of the 4th cenutry. There were similar canons before hand but some had Baruch (not in Protestant Bibles), some missed Revelation etc. Marcion excluded the entire OT and most of the NT.There is no Apostolic Tradition that says Mary was ever-virgin. It was a later invention. If it was Apostolic it would be in the New Testament, or you would see it mentioned in the first, or early second century.
Matt 13:55 Is not this the carpenter’s son? Is not his mother called Mary, and his brethren James, and Joseph, and Simon, and JudeBrothers means brothers. Especially when sisters (adelphe) is also used. If they simply wanted to say (loosely) brethren, then they would have used adelphoi, which is what that means.
I will leave with just one of many scriptures that the apostles believed in the Blessed Virgin Mary, from apostolic Tradition. The problem is not in the scriptures the problem there in lyes in your personal interpretation of scriptures that hinders the “Truth” of the Gospel proclaimed these 2000 years unchanged.Wrong. Luke used “cousin” to describe Mary’s loose kinship with Elizabeth. He would have used the same for Jesus’ brothers, if they were indeed simply near kin.
Gabriel of 12;
Your Wrong statement is addressed to the most influential biblical scholars and biblical historians. You would have to do better than just state “Wrong” because it carries no weight without able to disprove scholary and biblical history.
Just for your information; Luke did not walk and talk with Jesus as the other apostles. Luke recorded in his Greek, because he had the privledge of speaking with living apostles, and the blessed Virgin Mary, thus the “visitation account with Elizabeth” and the “Annunciation” from Gabriel the angel. Luke was able to get the eyewitness account first hand from these living Saints. To fill the gaps of his gospel, which parallel Mathew and Mark, Luke transcribed from these already written “Aramaic” accounts in their original language which did not have the Greek word for “Cousin”, thus you have Luke’s recorded account in Greek, and the “Brothers” of Jesus parallel the other gospel account from their original “Aramaic” language which did not have a word for cousin. This where the “Q” document comes into play of the parallel accounts from each gospel. This fragmented “Q” document was one of the first letters passed around the first century Christian churches along with Marks Gospel.
What you claim to be damaging, does not hold up to biblical scholary, and historical biblical study. You would have to state your case why the biblical and historical scholary study is “wrong” before any one would take your accusation seriously. “Until” then your personal view does not hold up to any biblical scholary work achievment, and your damage report only reveals your lack of knowledge in the investigation of the Gospel contents, and your 19th century interpretation of these ancient documents. For one it was the Catholic church and her Saints, who soiled their hands from the original letters of the Gospels. Not a 19th century personal interpretation.
ckempston;
There is no Apostolic Tradition that says Mary was ever-virgin. It was a later invention. If it was Apostolic it would be in the New Testament, or you would see it mentioned in the first, or early second century.
Gabriel of 12:That rings a bell; I’ll check it out. These claims always alarm me, because they indicate that all the gospel writers colluded and stole information from elsewhere rather than what they claimed to be: eyewitnesses, or interviewers of eyewitnesses.
Tell me NDfan; did you or your church faith soil their hands when they put the books of the bible together? I take it your church was not invented yet by your founder.Gabriel please don’t try and use the argument about document Q. This has no foundation at all.
You are not the first protestant to use greek gymnatics in an attempt to disprove the perpetual virginity of the Mother of God. It is very interesting that the Church fathers (for the better part of 2000 years) did not see this revelation of the Greek language as you are proposing it. And the early reformers did not see it either.People really to study the Greek and understand how the language is used.
Old heresies never die–the devil just finds another angle to re-introduce them.What are you doing 1800 years later bringing up aged old heretical views?
So, you’re using a statement that says the Apostles left the city some time after Pentecost to support the idea that they didn’t leave the city some time after Pentecost?Luke 24:49 - “But stay in the city until [heõs hou] you have been clothed with power from on high.”
Didn’t the apostles stay in the city even after they were clothed. c.f. Acts 8:1
More heous hou stuff
catholic-legate.com/articles/heoserrors6.html
catholic-legate.com/articles/heosindex.html
I think that you misread him. THe Apostles did not leave the City right after Pentecost, and at least one of them never left it (James the Greater).So, you’re using a statement that says the Apostles left the city some time after Pentecost to support the idea that they didn’t leave the city some time after Pentecost?![]()
Which interpretation of the following statement involves gymnastics?You are not the first protestant to use greek gymnatics in an attempt to disprove the perpetual virginity of the Mother of God. It is very interesting that the Church fathers (for the better part of 2000 years) did not see this revelation of the Greek language as you are proposing it. And the early reformers did not see it either.
But I suppose you are wiser than them all.![]()
Amen, what is the old saying? “there is nothing new under the sun”Old heresies never die–the devil just finds another angle to re-introduce them.
What hath that do with anythingTell me NDfan; did you or your church faith soil their hands when they put the books of the bible together? I take it your church was not invented yet by your founder.
I can assure you I can decipher between the 2. That has no implication for the so-called Q document you speak of. The Gospels are written in Greek plain and simple and they must be interpreted as such. Trying to justify what may have existed or may have been said in Aramaic has no basis for your argument.The way the letters of the bible were put together has a lot to prove the difference from “Aramaic” words, and “Greek” words used to record the gospels and other new testament books, when non catholics cant discipher the difference between the two languages and words written in the original letters and their translations from transcriptions.
You know non-catholics get tired of hearing scripture mis-interpreted and twisted to support the declarations of 1 very fallible human being.You know Catholics can get tired of hearing the same old arguments against Mary, which have already been settled since the third century and fourth centuries. From the Catholic council’s from Ephesus, and Nicea. Your repeated heretical views have already been scrutinized by the Catholic church and her enemies. What are you doing 1800 years later bringing up aged old heretical views? beside inventing 19th century interpetation of a “English” bible.
Greek gymnastics?? Mickey perhaps you should study the Greek thoroughly and then also study church history exhaustively. Support for the perpetual virginity of Mary did not appear until the late 4th century so let’s dispense with the 2000 year thing.You are not the first protestant to use greek gymnatics in an attempt to disprove the perpetual virginity of the Mother of God. It is very interesting that the Church fathers (for the better part of 2000 years) did not see this revelation of the Greek language as you are proposing it. And the early reformers did not see it either.
But I suppose you are wiser than them all.![]()
Canto heous hou does not have to imply immediately after an action has taken place. The commission was to preach the Gospel to the ends of the earth so to say they stayed in the city doesn’t really make sense.Luke 24:49 - “But stay in the city until [heõs hou] you have been clothed with power from on high.”
Didn’t the apostles stay in the city even after they were clothed. c.f. Acts 8:1
More heous hou stuff
catholic-legate.com/articles/heoserrors6.html
catholic-legate.com/articles/heosindex.html