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Your definitions of “creator” and “cause” must be accepted before the discussion of infinite regress is even able to begin. They have not, and you have not explained why they ought to be.
Your definitions of “creator” and “cause” must be accepted before the discussion of infinite regress is even able to begin. They have not, and you have not explained why they ought to be.
If your God has to pre-date the universe in-order to meaningfully create anything, then I’m afraid that your understanding of God is irrational; regardless of whether my argument succeeds or not. A non-physical timeless being necessarily exists simultaneously with the whole universe. There is no before or after time.Quote:
The reason that the temporal predating is relevant is that the term “creation” involves fabrication; something that does not exist cannot create.
Perhaps the confusion is that you’re using time to define God rather than using God to define time.If your God has to pre-date the universe in-order to meaningfully create anything, then I’m afraid that your understanding of God is irrational; regardless of whether my argument succeeds or not. A non-physical timeless being necessarily exists **simultaneously **with the whole universe. There is no before or after time. If you don’t agree with the idea that God is non-physical and transcends all time, that’s fine. But your disagreement is really irrelevant to the topic of this thread.
Why must this universe have had a beginning?I think this applies here, as I believe only God is infinite, and this world had to have had a beginning, just as it will ultimatley have an end.
Yes, but I don’t think that’s what you’re looking for.Could God create an infinitely long film reel?
True – it would be infinite from the point of creation through an endless future. Every human soul is like that. But that’s different than having an infinite past – which means “no beginning”.If he could, we can imagine that the film reel is a recording of a universe, and it would take an infinitely long time to play back (ignoring what would happen if it were to be played back infinitely fast)
If you’re going to criticize someone for not citing a source, it seems a little ironic that you didn’t cite it either.I consider this thread at the undergraduate level; the OP is simply restating what some theologian-philosophers have been saying for hundreds of years with no variation, addition, or any differentiation whatsoever, and also without acknowledging the sources of the argument.
That is, can an infinite universe exist without God? This is a scientific question. The answer appears to be, yes.You misunderstand the nature of my argument. My argument is not that you should accept my definition of a Creator, but rather my argument is about whether or not the existence of an infinite regress would make God as a creator of all things redundant as a cause.
If he fabricated the universe, then he does, in fact, pre-date the universe, because there was nothing except God, and then there was something.A non-physical God does not pre-exist the universe.
Can you justify this statement?God is not a temporal entity (in space-time), and thus it is meaningless to claim that he **pre-**exists anything accept as an analogy describing necessity and contingency. There was not a time before the creation of physical reality.
One cannot create something that has always existed. God cannot create a universe that regresses infinitely, because it was simply always there.If your God has to pre-date the universe in-order to meaningfully create anything,
Agreed, but there is no reason that it cannot also exist independent of the existence of the universe.A non-physical timeless being necessarily exists simultaneously with the whole universe.
In which case time has always existed, is different from saying that the universe has always existed.There is no before or after time.
I am always happy to provide citations.If you’re going to criticize someone for not citing a source, it seems a little ironic that you didn’t cite it either.
The point is that you didn’t and neither do you have to cite anybody when having a philosophical debate.
That is, can an infinite universe exist without God? This is a scientific question. The answer appears to be, yes.
There is no time before time, and so what you are saying is meaningless.because there was nothing except God, and then there was something.
Physical reality is space-time and energy; these qualities comprise the universe. There was no time before it; and God as I understand it is not physical.In which case time has always existed, is different from saying that the universe has always existed.
If you agree that God exists simultaneously with the whole universe, then you should agree that this is also true of Gods creative act. God is timeless (does not change from one state to another potential state). Since there is no temporal division in Gods act or nature, Gods existence is therefore one with his will to create (God timelessly creates; he does not begin to create). This has to be the case in order to speak of Gods creative act rationally, otherwise God cannot logically create anything given the fact that God does not change into other potential states.Agreed,
Did I say that God is not distinct from the universe?but there is no reason that it cannot also exist independent of the existence of the universe.
If you’re going to criticize someone for not citing a source, it seems a little ironic that you didn’t cite it either.
No, it is not exclusively in the realm of philosophy – if the universe is physically capable of sustaining itself, and this is demonstrably true at a mathematical level, then the answer is both yes and within the realm of science.That is not a scientific question. It is a philosophical question.
I never said that time at some point did not exist, so pointing this out is meaningless. Furthermore, causality exists in the case of creation, and this creation is necessarily temporal: something is not, then is.There is no time before time, and so what you are saying is meaningless.
Time is a concept. It is a measure that we can use to describe changes in state. It is also a property that is present within our universe.Physical reality is space-time and energy; these qualities comprise the universe. There was no time before it; and God as I understand it is not physical.
Not at all. That does not follow.If you agree that God exists simultaneously with the whole universe, then you should also agree that this is also true of Gods creative act.
That is not the definition of timelessness, but rather of stability of state, unless you wish to define “state” as inclusive of time, in which case the statement is tautological anyway. Furthermore, you must define what change of state means before this statement has any meaning itself.God is timeless (does not change from one state to another potential state).
That is largely irrelevant, in fact, and your definition of “creation” remains problematic even given its current vagueness. Nevertheless, it is clear that His will manifests itself in discrete time. There is temporal division in God’s act because the universe operates within the confines of time. Not all conceptions, for example, happen simultaneously. This does not mean that God is bound by time, but rather that any creation of his that is physical is.Since there is no temporal division in Gods act or nature, Gods existence is therefore one with his will to create. God timelessly creates; he does not begin to create.
That does not follow. God’s creation need not affect God. Either you reject the notion of time completely, arguing that all events happen simultaneously, or you accept the possibility of God existing outside of time in some way while his creation exists within time.This has to be the case in order to speak of Gods creative act rationally, otherwise God cannot logically create anything given the fact that God does not change into other potential states.
I certainly did not claim you did.Did I say that God is not distinct from the universe?
It is not demonstrably true on a mathematical level, and mathematics by itself does not comprise a scientific theory. So no, it is not a scientific theory. You cannot measure an infinite regress through the empirical method. Infinite regression is a philosophical idea.No, it is not exclusively in the realm of philosophy – if the universe is physically capable of sustaining itself, and this is demonstrably true at a mathematical level, then the answer is both yes and within the realm of science.
From Saint Thomas:I think God can. But only if we stop considering creation in temporal terms.
If we understand Gods creative act to be outside of time, and also that God is the very act of reality in which and through which physical essences have their being, then it would not matter if the universe has an infinite regress, since God is the reality by which all physical events are sustained in being, and therefore all physical events have an existential beginning. All potential events would be contingent upon Gods act of reality in order to exist and remain real because they have no intrinsic reality of their own. This is a form of creation. This of course would require people to understand that there is a objective distinction between the act of reality and the essence of any potential nature.
As God, in accordance with the perfection of the divine power, can do all things, and yet some things are not subject to His power, because they fall short of being possible; so, also, if we regard the immutability of the divine power, whatever God could do, He can do now. Some things, however, at one time were in the nature of possibility, whilst they were yet to be done, which now fall short of the nature of possibility, when they have been done. So is God said not to be able to do them, because they themselves cannot be done. (Summa Theologica, Ia q. 25 a. 4, ad 2)
“If…”It is not demonstrably true on a mathematical level,
You are correct; mathematics is more binding than observation-based science, although the former is used in the latter.and mathematics by itself does not comprise a scientific theory.
Infinite regression is by definition immeasurable, even in a philosophical context. Furthermore, infinity exists in mathematics all over the place. Consider the set of real numbers. Consider the set of natural numbers. These are examples of two different expressions of infinity. One set is actually larger than the other.You cannot measure an infinite regress through the empirical method. Infinite regression is a philosophical idea.
You assert that what I am saying is meaningless. But if there is no time before time, it is meaningless to say that something pre-dates it.I never said that time at some point did not exist, so pointing this out is meaningless.
You are talking about qualities or natures emerging within the framework of space-time and energy.Furthermore, causality exists in the case of creation, and this creation is necessarily temporal: something is not, then is.
Time is a word we use to describe and measure physical change.Time is a concept. It is a measure that we can use to describe changes in state.
It is not a property of God. God is absolute. God does not change from one state into another potential state. God is timeless.It is also a property that is present within our universe.
It has been adequately defined. You simply don’t like the definition.To say that there was no “time” before it is misleading because “time” has not been adequately defined.
It is irrelevant, since I am not arguing for the existence of an infinite regress.Say that the universe came into being, thereby starting time. It is clear that it is then finite.
There is no time before time.This is because it did not exist, and then existed.
I never said that it always existed in the sense of an infinite regress. However, there is no point in time where time does not exist, and there is no before time where time is absent and then begins to exist. Before and after is a temporal concept. God is not a temporal being.…that time did not necessarily exist before the universe does not mean that the universe always existed.
Assertion.Not at all. That does not follow.
Timelessness is not a physical state.That is not the definition of timelessness, but rather of stability of state.
I don’t understand what you are talking about here. What is discrete time?Nevertheless, it is clear that His will manifests itself in discrete time. There is temporal division in God’s act because the universe operates within the confines of time.
I never said that it did. However, God cannot do that which contradicts God’s nature or existence.That does not follow. God’s creation need not affect God.
I never said that there is no change in the Universe. I said that there is no change in God because he is not physical. God being non-physical means that he transcends all space-time, since God is neither confined or defined by physical qualities.Either you reject the notion of time completely, arguing that all events happen simultaneously, or you accept the possibility of God existing outside of time in some way while his creation exists within time.
I certainly did not claim you did.
Irrelevant.“If…”
You are correct; mathematics is more binding than observation-based science, although the former is used in the latter.
IrrelevantInfinite regression is by definition immeasurable
Irrelevant.Furthermore, infinity exists in mathematics all over the place. Consider the set of real numbers. Consider the set of natural numbers. These are examples of two different expressions of infinity. One set is actually larger than the other.
So? What has that got to do with this discussion?For the record, the current common scientific belief is that the universe is ~13.8 +/- .11 billion years old, although estimates differ. There is a common point, however: all estimates are of finite ages. Source? Here.