Let’s be very clear about what is or is not still in place. Gn 9:6, wherein God himself set forth the punishment for murder is part of the Covenant with Noah, and “The covenant with Noah remains in force during the times of the Gentiles, until the universal proclamation of the Gospel.” (CCC 58) This is the law we’re living under.
This is a misapprehension of what Christ actually taught. Nowhere in the NT or the Gospels do the writers make this point, rather there are numerous places where this assertion is flatly contradicted.
Citation?
The church is very careful to distinguish the obligations of the citizen from the duties of the magistrate. Your presumptions are not based on what the church teaches.It is lawful for a Christian magistrate to punish with death disturbers of the public peace. It is proved, first, from the Scriptures, for in the law of nature, of Moses, and of the Gospels, we have precepts and examples of this. For God says, “Whosoever shall shed man’s blood, his blood shall be shed.” These words cannot utter a prophecy, since a prophecy of this sort would often be false, but a decree and a precept. (St. Bellarmine)
The subtleties you speak of appear to have escaped certain Doctors of the Church. when Our Lord says: “You have heard that it hath been said of old, an eye for an eye, etc.,” He does not condemn that law, nor forbid a magistrate to inflict the poena talionis, but He condemns the perverse interpretation of the Pharisees, and forbids in private citizens the desire for and the seeking of vengeance. For God promulgates the holy law that the magistrate may punish the wicked by the poena talionis; whence the Pharisees infer that it is lawful for private citizens to seek vengeance (Bellarmine)
I can cite support for pretty much every assertion I make; do you have citations for anything?
Ender