B
Blue_Horizon
Guest
Ah, now I think I see where you are coming from…Simply stated, when I have used the terms adultery and/or mortal sin, I mean precisely that, as the terms are commonly understood in standard English: “When I say adultery I am speaking of the mortal sin of adultery.” Again, I cannot make this any clearer.
What you append to this sentence–"[as opposed to the venial sin of adultery]"–is your own inference in your attempt to establish the concept of a venial sin of adultery that would not nullify sanctifying grace. Nice try though.
Your questions are propositions and assume there is the venial sin of adultery. As such, each question is an hypothesis, and an hypothesis cannot be proven true in its own closed system of reasoning. Nonetheless:
It is noted that the question of whether a person in the state of mortal sin should be permitted to receive communion is again unanswered.
- No, of course not.
- In this regard? No, not if this means there is a venial sin of adultery. Simply stated, a sin is either adultery or it is not; adultery is a mortal sin. To be clear: "For a sin to be mortal, three conditions must together be met: ‘Mortal sin is sin whose object is grave matter and which is also committed with full knowledge and deliberate consent’ " (CCC 1857). And it is this that has been meant by “mortal sin”. If the above conditions of CCC 1857 are not met, then the sin is not a mortal sin.
- A classic example of a leading question. There is no “later” in (ii). However, in accordance with both the CCC 1857 and in the way I have used the terms mortal and adultery, there is no venial sin of adultery.
- Yes, or at least a distinction is possible as the difference between the Subjective and the Objective.
I simply said I honestly did not recall the comment you mentioned. And no, I did not read every comment in that long thread but did look for any that were in reply to a comment I made. However, it is neither necessary nor fair to spin this into a personal fault. With all due respect, your tendency to dismiss those you cannot refute is noted.
Why would you believe there can be no venial sin of adultery?
I find that an extraordinary statement.
On what basis do you define adultery as an analog to, say, “murder” which is where you seem to be coming from?
And all this begs the question which I suggest is the one you should be asking if this is how you understand the word “adultery” which is:
Do you consider all irregulars to be committing adultery as you define it above?
Likewise do you consider all those responsible in some way for death murderers?
BTW I rarely feel the need to refute anybody’s position. Normally I am simply attempting to demonstrate contrary views are acceptable.
However with your good self I do believe your position is one of those rare cases where it does not seem possible to square it with accepted Catholic teaching no matter how many somersaults I try
I really do not know why so many people here go on about winning or refuting arguments