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o_mlly
Guest
That is correct.If the ‘intent’ and the ‘object’ are the same, then why differentiate between them? If they are not the same thing , then perhaps we’re misidentifying them when we claim that they are identical?
The moral object of an act is always more than the mere physicality of the act. The moral object answers the question. “ What is morally happening?”. The intent answers the question, “ Why did the actor act?”.
John Paul II, Enc. Veritatis splendor , 78; cf. Catechism of the Catholic Church , 1751. “In order to be able to grasp the object of an act which specifies that act morally, it is therefore necessary to place oneself in the perspective of the acting person. The object of the act of willing is in fact a freely chosen kind of behavior. To the extent that it is in conformity with the order of reason, it is the cause of the goodness of the will; it perfects us morally, and disposes us to recognize our ultimate end in the perfect good, primordial love. By the object of a given moral act, then, one cannot mean a process or an event of the merely physical order, to be assessed on the basis of its ability to bring about a given state of affairs in the outside world”( Ibid. ). The “physical object” should not be confused with the “moral object” of the action (one and the same physical action may be the object of different moral acts, e.g., cutting with a scalpel may be a surgical operation or a homicide).