huh? first you argue that she was fully aware of ‘the facts of life,’ and now you are claiming that she did not?
NO – you’re NOT comprehending what I am saying. Your position (and that of Todd and Doki) is that Mary simply asked the question because she had never been** with a man. In context – that is
NOT** what she said. She was befuddles by the Angel’s announcement because she had no intention of being with a man (sexually).
**
dianaiad;7070244:
Weeelll…the fact that she was actually PREGNANT would seem that she had completed that process, would it not? Either naturally or through God’s action? Remember also that Joseph also got an angelic visit telling him to marry her.
Get this straight, because I think you’re very confused: MARY WASN’T PREGNANT WHEN THE ANGEL CAME. She did not become pregnant until she said, *“*
Let it be done unto me according to your word.”
Sure. in fact, I have already posted this link on a previous post; go look at it; it’s found on Judaism 101, a sort of encyclopedia of Jewish beliefs and culture through the ages (written and maintained by Jews.) . . . or it COULD have been the fact that she indeed chose to remain celibate - as the 2000 year-old tradition asserts. The Traditional teaching is that Luke interviewed Mary when he wrote his Gospel.
That’s fine…but memories change, and the specific wording of her answer seems to be of such intense importance that making absolutely certain that the words she remembered (or that Matthew was inspired to write) were literally the words she used.
Bad** answer.
Luke was under the** inspiration of the Holy Spirit. God does NOT mince words.
Oh, I do indeed believe that they were WRITTEN that way. Whether they were always translated that way…
Take a look at all these; of the 22 different renditions of this verse in English, 14 of them have Mary asking her question of the angel…and proclaiming her virginal state in the presnt and past tense only. Of the eight remaining, all have her speaking in the present tense–and it is only meaning brought to it from somewhere else that can possibly make it seem as if she were projecting in to the future. There is absolutely no hint of it being a permanent state. In fact, the translation that is meant to be a word for word translation, the Young’s Literal Translation, has Mary asking "how shall this be, seeing a husband
I do not know?
When you examine that one, you find problems. By using ‘husband’ rather than ‘man,’ you leave meaning wide open to having her ‘know’ someone who is NOT a husband. As well, you can’t figure that she was refering to a permanent state, since of course she was betrothed to, and fully intended to marry, Joseph. Therefore it may certainly be seen that while she doesn’t ‘know’ a husband now, she certainly intended to in the future.
Do you see the problem I have with working with specific words here? This isn’t exactly like "until,’ after all (though the irony is pretty good…) since ‘until’ is a specific concept to concept translation, while what Mary said to the angel seems to be rather variously translated.
…and now you know why I asked who wrote the script.
Then go back to the** GREEK****. I don’t know
HOW** many times I have to say this before it sinks in.
There are bad translations and
others that are far superior – far closer to the original Greek and Hebrew.
The HOLY SPIRIT wrote the original - you and Todd are playing *semantic *games . . …