I will explore the catholic catechism for a specific reference. I know that it states that Jesus fulfilled the Law, but that particular section does not go into further detail on whether the Law should continue to be observed or not. Without quoting it, as I do not have it in front of me now, we can simply look at what the Torah says & compare it to catholic practice:
• Why does catholicism not celebrate the Feasts of the Lord? (Leviticus 23)
• Why does the Catholic Church not celebrate the biblical sabbath (Exodus 20:8-11), but rather admit that the church changed the Sabbath to Sunday - which is a direct violation of Torah (Deuteronomy 4:2)
• Why does catholicism not teach to keep the dietary instructions of Leviticus 11?
• Deuteronomy 12:28-32 states that God’s people (Israel - of which believers become grafted into - Romans 11:17, Jeremiah 11:16) are not to learn the ways of the nation & worship God according to these ways & customs. Therefore, why does the catholic church not reject holidays such as Christmas, Easter, even Lent, that the church openly admitted to taking from secular ungodly religions?
These are just 4 examples of Torah instructions that the catholicism does not follow or teach. I understand that catholicism teaches that the “Old Testament” shadows the “New Testament” but again if God’s Word endures forever (Isaiah 40:8, 1 Peter 1:25) this can’t mean that the Torah was done away with when Jesus died. Therefore, all of the biblical Feasts, dietary laws, Sabbath, still endure and are relevant to believers today - exactly what Jesus references in Matthew 5:17-20 & Paul in Romans 3:30-31.
I am familiar with the Council of Florence which speaks against the observance of the Torah with extreme consequences. Here is a link:
The sacrosanct Roman Church, founded by the voice of our Lord and Savior, firmly believes, professes, and preaches one true God omnipotent, unchangeable, and eternal, Father, Son, and Holy Ghost; o…
catholicism.org
Thanks for sending the article. A few issues with it. Matthew was originally written in Hebrew, not Aramaic (see Panarion 29, or it may be Jerome’s letter to Augustine 75 - they are both good reads regarding various points of the whole conversation), and later translated into Greek. There is also very good evidence that the language spoken was Hebrew rather than Aramaic (
http://www.ancient-hebrew.org/m/nt_origins.html)
The words may have been synonyms in the 1st Century, but again in the 1st Century Matthew was in Hebrew & then translated to Greek. A distinction was made between the words for a reason, most likely to avoid confusion. Furthermore, you would have to decide who the “rock” is - the Messiah (1 Corinthians 10:4) or Peter. So, who is the Rock? I would also point that a pope is not biblical either, so using this passage to say Peter became a pope of a “new religion” called Christianity doesn’t follow biblical teachings.
I’ve enjoyed the conversation so far. Thank you for sharing reading material as well as being respectful in your comments, I truly appreciate both.