In the Book of Ezekiel, the phrase “He shall surely live” is used to express Divine approval. It is either used as an divine affirmation/confirmation of someone being rigteous before God.
Ezekiel 18:5-9
** 5"But if a man is righteous and practices justice and righteousness,
6and does not eat at the mountain shrines or lift up his eyes to the idols of the house of Israel, or defile his neighbor’s wife or approach a woman during her menstrual period–
7if a man does not oppress anyone, but restores to the debtor his pledge, (does not commit robbery, but gives his bread to the hungry and covers the naked with clothing,
8if he does not lend money on interest or take increase, if he keeps his hand from iniquity and executes true justice between man and man,
9if he walks in My statutes and My ordinances so as to deal faithfully–he is righteous** and will surely live," declares the Lord GOD.
Or it is used as a declaration of forgiveness:
Ezekiel 18:21
21"But if the wicked man turns from all his sins which he has committed and observes all My statutes and practices justice and righteousness, he shall surely live; he shall not die.
God will never give His approval to a person who has not repentant of his wickedness or is not genuinely righteous before His sight. And that person is righteous because God made him righteous. Therefore, when we have a verse like;
Ezekiel 33:13
13"When I say to the righteous he will surely live, and he so trusts in his righteousness that he commits iniquity, none of his righteous deeds will be remembered; but in that same iniquity of his which he has committed he will die.
Note that the sin happens after God has given the righteous person His approval (“he shall surely live”), which is only given to those who are genuinely righteous or to a repentant sinner. Therefore, the subject in Ezekiel 33:13 is a genuinely righteous person before God’s sight. This person took for granted this divine approval and figured that his righteous acts would be enough to cover his future sins. Wrong! This verse is also remarkably similar to:
1 Corinthians 10:12
**12Therefore let him who thinks he stands take heed that he does not fall. **
And also Romans 11:20-22
20Quite right, they were broken off for their unbelief, but you stand by your faith Do not be conceited, but fear;
21for if God did not spare the natural branches, He will not spare you, either.
22Behold then the kindness and severity of God; to those who fell, severity, but to you, God’s kindness, if you continue in His kindness; otherwise you also will be cut off.
The righteous of the Old and New Testaments became righteous the same way. There is no difference, as demonstrated by Hebrews 11. The fact that this person dies in his sin (i.e. but in that iniquity of his which he has commited he will die), means that he did not persevere to the end. And yet he was genuinely justified? But the elect are supposed to persevere to the end. The fact that he did not persevere to the end demonstrates that he was of the reporbate. The fact that he has divine approval and was called righteous by God shows that he was justified.
God Bless,
Michael