M
maryjk
Guest
But this theory wouldn’t work once the spouse became aware of it. So it would then fall into the same situation as a spouse using a condom.There’s a third option. That directive is meant for couples where one spouse is using a form of contraception that the other person has no control over. A pill or a surgical procedure can be administered without the participation **or even the knowledge of both parties. **A condom doesn’t fall under that situation as it is impossible for it to be used without the consent of both parties.
Once you know, you know.
(I don’t agree with you interpretation. Just showing why I think it doesn’t work.)