Church Fathers on the Eucharist

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Moreover, the Jews listening to Jesus understood him literally and that is why they left.
This bears repeating with emphasis. The ones who stopped following Christ Jesus were the ones who objected to his teaching that his flesh was real food and his blood real drink. Jesus asked the Apostles if they too wanted to stop following him, and St. Peter, speaking for the group, said no.

The point is clear: Those who reject the Real Presence reject the Lord.

– Mark L. Chance.
 
But he did, when He said His words are spirit and life.
No. Let us review again–The Disciples grumbled against Him and so turned to them, saying if that is shocking: “Does this shock you? What if you were to see the Son of Man ascending to where he was before?” Already here we see an affirmation that He meant it literally, not figuratively. For Jesus, it is not shocking nor impossible. We go on to the next verse: “It is the spirit that gives life, while the flesh is of no avail. The words I have spoken to you are spirit and life.” Now, I have mentioned awhile back that we can see “It is the spirit that gives life” to affirm Transubstantiation; we can further reflect on the whole verse itself, wherein Jesus affirms that what He said is the truth: what He has spoken are spirit and life. We can see then that, far from retracting or giving a new twist, He further reinforces that what He said should be taken as it is–literally. After that, the 60 left Him. At that point, He would have had come after them to explain further if He meant it to be spiritual or symbolic, but He did not. He turned to the 12 and asked them if they are also willing to go.
I do not see affirmation by the ECF of the teaching of transubsantiation. I see that they had theories and similar beliefs.
Ah, you should reread all of them again. How then did the Church came to this conclusion if it were not taught in the first place, from the first then? Jesus taught it; Paul affirmed it and the Early Fathers carried it.
 
Please explain why.
Please explain why someone who has a calling by God to the priesthood should be rejected because of his disability. Or rather, does God only choose healthy individuals to the priesthood?

Also, that article only addresses the ways in which the church has RECENTLY addressed the problem of gluten-intolerant persons. What about the poor saps prior to 1995?

And from my neighboring diocese: rcab.org/OfficeForWorship/PastoralNotes/CeliacWorship.html
Although it is not possible here to give a full scriptural and historical examination of this practice, the Church believes that the use of bread made of wheat is of divine origins.
Yes, and I have not found a good scriptural and historical examination of this practice yet…

I simply fail to understand how something so sacred and TRULY Jesus, can be a danger to someone…

I also don’t embrace the belief that the bread must be made of wheat. It seems overly technical to me. Must we do everything EXACTLY as Jesus did?
The bread used in the celebration of the Most Holy Eucharistic Sacrifice must be unleavened, purely of wheat, and recently made so that there is no danger of decomposition. It follows therefore that bread made from another substance, even if it is grain, or if it is mixed with another substance different from wheat to such an extent that it would not commonly be considered wheat bread, does not constitute valid matter for confecting the Sacrifice and the Eucharistic Sacrament. It is a grave abuse to introduce other substances, such as fruit or sugar or honey, into the bread for confecting the Eucharist. Hosts should obviously be made by those who are not only distinguished by their integrity, but also skilled in making them and furnished with suitable tools.
Perhaps more research is due on my part in understanding just why it is that we must use wheat bread. However, I’m sure there are many other little historical facts we can find about Jesus’ celebration of the passover that night - many of which we DO NOT imitate today. Must the priest be in the same location as Jesus was? Must we be “reclined at table” like they were? Why do we use perfectly round little “hosts” for communion? Jesus did not. I could go on and on…

From this site: adoremus.org/0904CeliacDisease.html

**
Doctrine Matters
**
The Catholic Church holds that Jesus Christ instituted the Eucharist at the Last Supper. In the Gospel accounts, bread and wine are essential to the Paschal meal.
. Thats fine. I’ve got 3 loaves of gluten-free bread right here…**
References to Jesus as the Bread of Life, etc., occur elsewhere in Scripture. This is a matter of divine revelation; the Church is not free to alter Jesus’ words of institution: “This is my body… This is my blood…”, nor any other essential element of this Paschal meal.
Again, that is fine. Don’t change the words of institution, and don’t use donuts unstead of bread. Like I said, I’ve got plenty of bread here that we could use…
The bread Jesus consecrated was made of wheat. The wine Jesus consecrated was grape wine.
**
…and they were all in Jerusalem… and they were all reclined at a table… and it was the Jewish Passover… How far can we go with this???

I admit, I may need to study up some more on this. I have yet to find a good argument as to why we need to be so technical. This is not the only reason I have reconsidered being Catholic, but it just added icing to the cake.
 
Please explain why someone who has a calling by God to the priesthood should be rejected because of his disability.
Because that disability prevents him from performing his duties.
Yes, and I have not found a good scriptural and historical examination of this practice yet…
So? You have no authority to decide matters of doctrine and discipline. The Church’s position is clearly stated. If you reject the Church, you reject Christ. It’s that simple.

– Mark L. Chance.
 
Well Jesus said spirit that gives life, the flesh had nothing to offer. Could he have not been saying that his flesh had nothing to offer, but his spiritual self is what gives life? Is not the Eucharist spiritual food, so why, if he said flesh had nothing to offer would he give us his flesh, it was not spiritual?
Read Romans 8: 1-16. Paul tells us what life though the spirit means, and how “the flesh” leads us to death.

Please notice that he said “the flesh”. Jesus is not talking about his own flesh, he is** not** talking about his own body, he is not talking about the** Word made flesh**, he is not talking about his own flesh that he offered on the cross, BUT “the flesh” that means our carnal knowledge," the flesh" that means our** human understanding**, “the flesh” that means the human reasoning. “The flesh" does not mean Jesus’ body. “The flesh” means everything subject to temptation, “the flesh” that leads us to death.
Notice that in verse 51-56, Jesus was talking about his own flesh, “MY FLESH”.** His Flesh was the means of our redemption and salvation.** Do not equate “**the flesh” **with “**my flesh”.**Please notice how he used " my flesh” when talking about the bread of life and “the flesh” when he was talking about our carnal knowledge. Do you see it?
 
Now, I have mentioned awhile back that we can see “It is the spirit that gives life” to affirm Transubstantiation;
Reading this Scripture without a Catholic bias, I think it is far more plausible that they didn’t need an explanation b/c they didn’t truly believe He was speaking literally. Perhaps they fell away as though they held to the belief that He was speaking literally, although I’m sure many of them did not truly believe He meant it literally, anymore than they believed that he was truly a vine or a door. It’s a very human way of reacting to something we already can’t accept. We look for excuses not to follow God, so we latch onto something that seems absurd as an exuse to avoid the consequences of following the truth. Perhaps these people were already struggling with Jesus’ teachings and knew they couldn’t live up to them. This “hard saying” was simply the straw that broke the camel’s back. They weren’t willing to accept any explanation about this. Neither did they understand how He could rebuild the temple in 3 days. Neither did they understand that one must be born-again…
we can further reflect on the whole verse itself, wherein Jesus affirms that what He said is the truth: what He has spoken are spirit and life. We can see then that, far from retracting or giving a new twist, He further reinforces that what He said should be taken as it is–literally.
I’m sorry, but I just don’t see that. He also said that the flesh profits nothing, after having just told us that His flesh is food indeed, and that without it we have no life in us…
After that, the 60 left Him. At that point, He would have had come after them to explain further if He meant it to be spiritual or symbolic
How much more explaining did He need to do? He explained, before they walked away, that His words were spirit and life. There were many hard sayings of Jesus that even His apostles did not understand until He sent the Holy Spirit. He did not continually go back and try to explain it over and over…

It was their faith that kept them walking with Jesus.
64But there are some of you that believe not. For Jesus knew from the beginning who they were that believed not, and who should betray him.
and…
69And we believe and are sure that thou art that Christ, the Son of the living God.
Ah, you should reread all of them again. How then did the Church came to this conclusion if it were not taught in the first place, from the first then? Jesus taught it; Paul affirmed it and the Early Fathers carried it.
I honestly don’t know how one believes that the ECF taught it, or that Paul did. Paul certainly believed it had significance, at least symbolically, and many of the ECF may have believed in a presence, but I cannot conclude that any of them believed in transubstantiation.

Lastly, knowing what happens to the bread in the Lord’s supper does not seem essential to my walk with Christ. How do we know that whatever happens to the Catholic hosts does not also happen to the bread at the protestant congregations down the road?
 
Because that disability prevents him from performing his duties.
Only due to a technicality on the part of the Catholic church.
So? You have no authority to decide matters of doctrine and discipline. The Church’s position is clearly stated. If you reject the Church, you reject Christ. It’s that simple.

– Mark L. Chance.
In your opinion perhaps. I didn’t say I had the authority to decide. I simply don’t believe that this technicality is something the Catholic church cannot change. I do not reject Christ by rejecting certain teachings of the Roman Catholic church. It’s ridiculous statements like this that drive away well-intentioned, truth-seeking Christians from conversing in forums like this.
 
The Church’s position is clearly stated.
I don’t think it is. It doesn’t give a clear enough exlanation as to why we must use the exact same bread. The Scripture say He took bread, blessed it… Although we may know, historically, that this was unleavened wheat bread, we know many other historical technicalities about that night that we do not duplicate. Why must the bread be exactly the same but not everything else? Where do we draw the line? Doesn’t the type of bread seem overly technical to you? Kind of like the restrictions placed on the Jews which Jesus clearly condemned.

From here:natcath.com/NCR_Online/archives2/2001a/020901/020901h.htm
“The law of the church is extremely explicit regarding bread and wine used for the eucharistic celebration. In keeping with the Last Supper narrative found in the gospels, the bread must be made of wheat alone.
I do not see, in the last supper narrative, the command by Christ that the bread must be made of wheat alone. I was not aware of the belief in *sola wheat 😛 . *
 
Reading this Scripture without a Catholic bias, I think it is far more plausible that they didn’t need an explanation b/c they didn’t truly believe He was speaking literally.
That still doesn’t explain why Jesus didn’t go after them; remember as well, they were His Disciples: believers already, not those Jewish authorities who came to listen and try to knock His teachings down. They were already following Him. Jesus was morally obliged to them to explain, as again He said “I am the Truth”. Truth not totally told is not truth; it only becomes a half-truth, which is not what Jesus is all about. So the moral obligation still stands, most especially since they were His followers.
Perhaps they fell away as though they held to the belief that He was speaking literally, although I’m sure many of them did not truly believe He meant it literally, anymore than they believed that he was truly a vine or a door.
The difference with the vine and door is that He went aside and explained it to His Disciples; the parables of Jesus were discussed by Him with His most trusted associates, as they would carry His message after He left. Not so with John 6; there was no explanation. He was adamant: would you go as well, He asked of the twelve. No explanation, no careful analysis as He would do in His parables. Jesus spoke literally. His listeners understood it that way; the Twelve understood it as well. Peter’s reply is most telling; unpacking it, he said that they as well didn’t quite get it, but there was nowhere else to turn to. Jesus didn’t speak of it again, but showed it later on at the Upper Room.
I’m sorry, but I just don’t see that. He also said that the flesh profits nothing, after having just told us that His flesh is food indeed, and that without it we have no life in us… How much more explaining did He need to do?
Very much, since it’s His Disciples which left Him. He was their rabbi, their teacher. A rabbi losing his disciples that way would be a very bad rabbi, and his reputation as such would plummet. His reputation as a rabbi was at stake, so His obligation to explain is all the more critical if He was talking in a figurative sense. He didn’t explain. Was verse 63 an explanation? No. What He only said was, “This is what I said. If you don’t understand it, then deal with it, but I have spoken enough.” Nothing more, nothing less. He didn’t explain any further. Spiritual? Figurative? Hardly.
Paul certainly believed it had significance, at least symbolically
I do not quite see how one can sin over a symbol, as Paul noted. Paul certainly thought it was more than a symbol or something figurative.
and many of the ECF may have believed in a presence, but I cannot conclude that any of them believed in transubstantiation.
No, they did not merely believed in a presence, but The Presence. They believed in a literal flesh and blood in the Eucharist, not a figurative flesh and blood.
Lastly, knowing what happens to the bread in the Lord’s supper does not seem essential to my walk with Christ. How do we know that whatever happens to the Catholic hosts does not also happen to the bread at the protestant congregations down the road?
One, because they do not believe in it. Since belief should equal to actuation, or an actual reality that is happening, then the Protestant notion of a symbol does not equate to a Presence. The Catholic and Orthodox view of a real, physical Presence makes it real, as again belief goes into actuation.
 
Milliardo,

I admittedly can see this point of view, but also believe it is possible that Jesus is speaking about His Word. Aferall, these people came back because:
Ye seek me, not because ye saw the miracles, but because ye did eat of the loaves, and were filled.
They were not true disciples as you said. Had they been true believers in Christ, Jesus would not have made this point to begin with.

Jesus did not go after them because:
Jesus knew from the beginning who they were that believed not, and who should betray him.
and…
36But I said unto you, That ye also have seen me, and believe not.
I believe this also has significance:
35And Jesus said unto them, I am the bread of life: he that cometh to me shall never hunger; and he that **believeth on me **shall never thirst.
Remembering also that Jesus is the Word made flesh - His Word (spoken/written/taught by the apostles)is something we should eat of - to “gnaw” on. Scripture is steeped in the importance of the Word of God
40And this is the will of him that sent me, that every one which seeth the Son, and believeth on him, may have everlasting life
Here He is first telling us that to have everlasting life we must believe on Him. Keeping these verses in mind is key to understanding the next verses about His flesh in blood and keeping them in context, are they not?
42And they said, Is not this Jesus, the son of Joseph, whose father and mother we know? how is it then that he saith, I came down from heaven?
These do not sound like faithful, faith-filled disciples, do they? He knew they would not have “ears to hear” and understand His next saying about His flesh and blood, even after he explained that His Words are spirit and life, and the flesh profits nothing.
And once again, before he goes into the discourse on his flesh and blood, He EMPHASIZES this:
47Verily, verily, I say unto you, He that believeth on me hath everlasting life.
Now,
51I am the living bread which came down from heaven: if any man eat of this bread, he shall live for ever: and the bread that I will give is my flesh, which I will give for the life of the world.
There is so much symbolism in this one sentence I don’t even know where to begin. First of all, Jesus is the Word of God, and the Word in flesh. He is the bread of life in that His Word gives life and the sacrifice of His life gives us access to eternal life. Even Peter recognizes the eternal, saving power of Jesus’ Word:
thou hast the words of eternal life.
 
Joy,

First, please allow me to extend my sympathies for your condition; Jesus must love you very much to place such a heavy cross at your feet. May the Peace of Christ be with you always.

Now…I did some looking for you, and I pulled the following off the Vatican’s website (meditation on the 14th station of the Cross - you might click the link…it’s very beautiful):
…At the very moment of his burial, Jesus’ words are fulfilled: “Truly, truly, I say to you, unless a grain of wheat falls to the earth and dies, it remains alone; but if it dies, it bears much fruit” (Jn 12:24). Jesus is the grain of wheat which dies. From that lifeless grain of wheat comes forth the great multiplication of bread which will endure until the end of the world. Jesus is the bread of life which can satisfy superabundantly the hunger of all humanity and provide its deepest nourishment. Through his Cross and Resurrection, the eternal Word of God became flesh and bread for us. The mystery of the Eucharist already shines forth in the burial of Jesus…
Take away the grain of wheat, take away the Christ. Jesus’ words, not ours. Listen to mom - what she says is important. When Holy Mother Church speaks, it’s typically in a united front with Dad.

Second, I commend Exodus 12 for your reading. A Jew would not be spared by symbolically eating the pascal lamb - it is very explicit that you must partake of the sacrifice. Jesus made the Law full (fulfilled the Law). We eat the Lamb in the same way as the Jews at the Passover, but it’s much more real. Rather than escaping physical death, we escape spiritual death. It is the Spirit who gives life.

Third, if you want to take the Protestant approach regarding a “merely symbolic” reading of the text, you should probably take the Protestant approach of letting Scripture interpret Scripture. I say that because you’ve rejected Sacred Tradition, so unless you’re interpreting based on your personal subjective feelings, you’ve really got no other choice. That said, it’s significant to note that every time “eating flesh” or “drinking blood” is used in a symbolic context, it always means “doing violence to” (see, for example, Psalm 27:2, Micah 3:3). To be consistent, you would have to read Jesus’ words as saying, “unless you do violence to me, you have no life in you.” Does the “merely symbolic” approach really work? Of course there’s symbolism in the Eucharist - but there’s no “mere” about it.

Fourth, in Gen 9:4 we were prohibited from drinking blood, because the “life is in the blood”. This was a preparation for Jesus, again, the fulfillment of the OT, who wants to give us His life. The life is in the Blood. Truly, truly, I say to you - unless you drink His Blood you have no life in you.

God Bless,
RyanL
 
I admittedly can see this point of view, but also believe it is possible that Jesus is speaking about His Word.
I think the crux of this all is the attempt to understand the passage apart from the understanding of the Early Fathers or the Church. That being said though, let us see further.
They were not true disciples as you said.
No, I did not say they were not true disciples; they were, but came to a glitch once they came to this particular teaching. They were after all okay with what He taught before it, and were willing to be with Him until this.
Had they been true believers in Christ, Jesus would not have made this point to begin with.
Jesus did not go after them because
Still does not explain everything. Now, He did know who would not believe; however, as the Truth why then not explain it? It is up to them to believe or not after He explained it. Again, He did not explain it. He left it as it is, and further even left the Twelve wanting for an explanation. No explanation after John 6 until the Upper Room.

Yes, He is the Word made flesh, but one also has to understand the gradual introduction of a literal explanation of Jesus in John 6. i said gradual, because the Jews and the Disciples did not take offense until He said: Jesus said to them, "Amen, amen, I say to you, unless you eat the flesh of the Son of Man and drink his blood, you do not have life within you. (verse 53). The gradual introduction and transition can be seen until that verse. The Disciples at that time then began to murmur as well. Again, figurative? It cannot be seen. The whole point comes down to Jesus leaving the whole thing hangingand the Disciples wondering. That is where many who try to force a figurative interpretation fail, since they still have to account Jesus’ letting go of the 60 and His willingness to let go even of the 12 over this matter. The 12, as I will repeat, were His confidants. If He needed to explain further, He confides to them. But He didn’t, and can even let them go. That’s where it all ends.
 
The best way to understand John Chapter six is by looking at the whole picture. Prior to the discourse on the bread of life, Jesus works three miracles. The first is at the marriage feast at Cana where Jesus changes the water into wine. He then multiplies the loaves and fishes to feed the five thousand. Finally, Jesus walks on water. These three miracles are the setup for the discourse. We see what Jesus can do with food and we see what Jesus can do with his body.

When Jesus speaks in the discourse on the bread of life he makes a comparison to two additional miracles. Jesus compares what he promises in giving us his body and blood as true food and true drink to the miracle of the manna in the desert and also the miracle of his ascension into heaven. The connection and contrast that Jesus draws to these two miracles, which all Christians believe, is that his promise of the true food and true drink is yet greater than these. Moreover, if all of these things are miracles then it is clear that the promise of his body and blood as true food and true drink is also a miracle.

A symbolic interpretation goes against the entire thrust and context of the narrative. If the flesh Jesus gives as true food and true drink is symbolic than so is his flesh that he gives for the life of the world per Jn 6:51. You must look at all of the connections here…they are powerful and they are totally Catholic.

Jesus knew who it was that didn’t believe him and they walked away. What is it that they didn’t believe? They didn’t believe that he would give them his flesh and blood as true food and true drink. Jesus stated that he would give us his flesh to eat and his blood to drink four different times and he never backs away from it.

The is not a metaphor. When Jesus speaks of himself as the gate in John 10 we are even told that this particular passage is a figure of speech. Verse six makes this quite clear. Moreover, in every instance where Jesus uses metaphorical language it is crystal clear that he is speaking metaphorically because of the surrounding language. An example of this can be seen in John 15 concerning the vine and the branches. Note the language such as “vine, vinedresser, branch, fruit, prunes, withers,” and the phrase that the “branches are gathered, thrown into the fire and burned.” This is clearly metaphorical language. We do not see this kind of metaphorical language and the attendant linguistic creativity in John Chapter 6.

The discourse on the bread of life is literal. If it were not literal Jesus would not have let his disciples leave because of a misunderstanding.

I hope this helps.
 
I don’t think it is. It doesn’t give a clear enough exlanation as to why we must use the exact same bread. The Scripture say He took bread, blessed it… Although we may know, historically, that this was unleavened wheat bread, we know many other historical technicalities about that night that we do not duplicate. Why must the bread be exactly the same but not everything else? Where do we draw the line? Doesn’t the type of bread seem overly technical to you? Kind of like the restrictions placed on the Jews which Jesus clearly condemned.

From here:natcath.com/NCR_Online/archives2/2001a/020901/020901h.htm

I do not see, in the last supper narrative, the command by Christ that the bread must be made of wheat alone. I was not aware of the belief in *sola wheat 😛 . *
When we look at the old testament and read about the Passover, the construction of the Ark of the Covenant, the establishment of the OT ministerial priesthood and numerous other things we see that they are established by God and that all of these things had very specific rules and rituals outlined for the people of the Covenant. The people did not have a say in how these things were established or how they were to be carried out. Likewise, we of the new covenant do not have the ability to establish these things ourselves.

Let’s imagine for a moment that your view had merit and we should be more flexible in what we use for the Eucharistic elements. Many protestant churches already use leavened bread and grape juice. Would it be alright to use rice bread, soy bread, vinegar, apple cider, vodka, or any other types of materials that we as individuals might determine to be necessary or desireable? Where exactly would we draw the line?

As it turns out modern medical science has been able to determine that gluten in wheat bread is the culprit for serious allergic reactions for some individuals. The solution is now in your hands and it does not require the Church to change. The bread you have described as gluten free solves the problem without the Church changing what Jesus established. The complaint about the Church’s position is moot.

Naturally, people that are hyper allergic to gluten have to be careful and it is reasonable for the pastor and local parish to work with you and others to make sure that you will receive Jesus by way of gluten free bread that has been consecrated at mass. I believe that the convent nuns that developed this bread are a great blessing to the Church and to her members. This is, I believe, God’s way of providing a solution that solves the problem without changing that which He has instituted. The Church does not have the power to change the words of institution nor does the Church have the power to change the materials used to confect the Eucharist. It simply cannot happen.
 
The best way to understand John Chapter six is by looking at the whole picture. Prior to the discourse on the bread of life, Jesus works three miracles. The first is at the marriage feast at Cana where Jesus changes the water into wine. He then multiplies the loaves and fishes to feed the five thousand. Finally, Jesus walks on water. These three miracles are the setup for the discourse. We see what Jesus can do with food and we see what Jesus can do with his body.

When Jesus speaks in the discourse on the bread of life he makes a comparison to two additional miracles. Jesus compares what he promises in giving us his body and blood as true food and true drink to the miracle of the manna in the desert and also the miracle of his ascension into heaven. The connection and contrast that Jesus draws to these two miracles, which all Christians believe, is that his promise of the true food and true drink is yet greater than these. Moreover, if all of these things are miracles then it is clear that the promise of his body and blood as true food and true drink is also a miracle.

A symbolic interpretation goes against the entire thrust and context of the narrative. If the flesh Jesus gives as true food and true drink is symbolic than so is his flesh that he gives for the life of the world per Jn 6:51. You must look at all of the connections here…they are powerful and they are totally Catholic.

Jesus knew who it was that didn’t believe him and they walked away. What is it that they didn’t believe? They didn’t believe that he would give them his flesh and blood as true food and true drink. Jesus stated that he would give us his flesh to eat and his blood to drink four different times and he never backs away from it.

The is not a metaphor. When Jesus speaks of himself as the gate in John 10 we are even told that this particular passage is a figure of speech. Verse six makes this quite clear. Moreover, in every instance where Jesus uses metaphorical language it is crystal clear that he is speaking metaphorically because of the surrounding language. An example of this can be seen in John 15 concerning the vine and the branches. Note the language such as “vine, vinedresser, branch, fruit, prunes, withers,” and the phrase that the “branches are gathered, thrown into the fire and burned.” This is clearly metaphorical language. We do not see this kind of metaphorical language and the attendant linguistic creativity in John Chapter 6.

The discourse on the bread of life is literal. If it were not literal Jesus would not have let his disciples leave because of a misunderstanding.

I hope this helps.
Again I ask; what difference does it make if someone goes to communion and really and truly believes that he or she is partaking of our Lord, and doesn’t know or doesn’t believe in transubstantiation? Do you really believe that Jesus would not let this be spiritual food for that person? Why is there so much controversy about something Jesus gave us to remember him buy? You know if everyone would ask Jesus, I believe he would give us all peace and let us all benefit from his gift.
 
What difference does it make? St. Paul had something to say about that, IIRC:

1 Cor 11 said:
27 Wherefore whosoever shall eat this bread, and drink this cup of the Lord, unworthily, shall be guilty of the body and blood of the Lord.
28 But let a man examine himself, and so let him eat of that bread, and drink of that cup.
29 For he that eateth and drinketh unworthily, eateth and drinketh damnation to himself, not discerning the Lord’s body.
30 For this cause many are weak and sickly among you, and many sleep.

What I gather from this is that it makes a difference. Do you disagree with St. Paul?

God Bless,
RyanL
 
What difference does it make? St. Paul had something to say about that, IIRC:

What I gather from this is that it makes a difference. Do you disagree with St. Paul?

God Bless,
RyanL
Ryan, now you are telling us that Paul was telling us we had to believe in transubstantiation. My understanding he was telling us we should be sober, sinless, and in harmony with our brothers, etc. Ask yourself Ryan what if a person is incapable of understanding transubstantiation? Does that mean the host and wine are not the body and blood of Jesus then?
 
Only due to a technicality on the part of the Catholic church.
That’s the thing about the Church and the Sacraments. She’s really picky about what constitutes valid matter. Why? Because the sacraments are the streams of Christ’s life in the world. You mess with the sacraments, you mess with the whole shabang. No sacraments, no supernatural life. Thus: you cannot be baptized in motor oil. You cannot marry a person of the same sex. You cannot be absolved over the internet. A woman cannot be a priest.

And the Eucharist cannot be confected using anything other than valid matter. Which is wheat bread. Because that is what Jesus used. Because he was a Jew carrying out and transcending a Jewish practice. It’s always been wheat bread. It will always be wheat bread. Anything that makes it other than that will never be used. The Church will rightly always be conservative when it comes to the Sacraments.

Receive Christ under the appearance of wine. Problem solved.
 
Ask yourself Ryan what if a person is incapable of understanding transubstantiation? Does that mean the host and wine are not the body and blood of Jesus then?
It has nothing to do with understanding. It has everything to do with believing, to the extent that one can. Thus to fail to believe through no fault of your own (e.g., mental retardation, misunderstanding, misinformation) is not a sin. However, to persist in “obstinate post-baptismal denial of some truth which must be believed with divine and catholic faith” is heresy (ooh, the “h” word). Heresy is a sin. In fact, it is a grave sin. Like all grave sins, it must be done with freedom and understanding to be mortal. Thus, when St. Paul says, as you say, that we must not be in a state of obstinate sin (“obstinate” because we are all usually under the influence of at least some minor sin) to receive communion, that includes the sin of denying the substantial presence of Christ in the Eucharist. And as Ryan says, St. Paul certainly seems to have understood it to be the “body of Christ.”
 
Ryan, now you are telling us that Paul was telling us we had to believe in transubstantiation. My understanding he was telling us we should be sober, sinless, and in harmony with our brothers, etc. Ask yourself Ryan what if a person is incapable of understanding transubstantiation? Does that mean the host and wine are not the body and blood of Jesus then?
That would be “receptionism” – a faulty doctrine because this either IS or IS NOT the Body, Blood, Soul and Divinity of Christ. The point is that nobody can understand all the nuances of some of the more difficult doctrines. It is sufficient to accept in faith that the teaching of the Church is correct and believe THAT along the route of coming towards a better understanding of the details. Actually, the Orthodox do not TRY to define how Christ is present in the Blessed Sacrament. They just say it’s a mystery. They believe with all their heart, mind and soul that Christ is truly present, but with respectful diffidence decline to define HOW he does it.
 
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