Reading this Scripture without a Catholic bias, I think it is far more plausible that they didn’t need an explanation b/c they didn’t truly believe He was speaking literally.
That still doesn’t explain why Jesus didn’t go after them; remember as well, they were His Disciples: believers already, not those Jewish authorities who came to listen and try to knock His teachings down. They were already following Him. Jesus was morally obliged to them to explain, as again He said “I am the Truth”. Truth not totally told is not truth; it only becomes a half-truth, which is not what Jesus is all about. So the moral obligation still stands, most especially since they were His followers.
Perhaps they fell away as though they held to the belief that He was speaking literally, although I’m sure many of them did not truly believe He meant it literally, anymore than they believed that he was truly a vine or a door.
The difference with the vine and door is that He went aside and explained it to His Disciples; the parables of Jesus were discussed by Him with His most trusted associates, as they would carry His message after He left. Not so with John 6; there was no explanation. He was adamant: would you go as well, He asked of the twelve. No explanation, no careful analysis as He would do in His parables. Jesus spoke literally. His listeners understood it that way; the Twelve understood it as well. Peter’s reply is most telling; unpacking it, he said that they as well didn’t quite get it, but there was nowhere else to turn to. Jesus didn’t speak of it again, but showed it later on at the Upper Room.
I’m sorry, but I just don’t see that. He also said that the flesh profits nothing, after having just told us that His flesh is food indeed, and that without it we have no life in us… How much more explaining did He need to do?
Very much, since it’s His
Disciples which left Him. He was their
rabbi, their teacher. A rabbi losing his disciples that way would be a very bad rabbi, and his reputation as such would plummet. His reputation as a rabbi was at stake, so His obligation to explain is all the more critical if He was talking in a figurative sense. He didn’t explain. Was verse 63 an explanation? No. What He only said was, “This is what I said. If you don’t understand it, then deal with it, but I have spoken enough.” Nothing more, nothing less. He didn’t explain any further. Spiritual? Figurative? Hardly.
Paul certainly believed it had significance, at least symbolically
I do not quite see how one can sin over a symbol, as Paul noted. Paul certainly thought it was more than a symbol or something figurative.
and many of the ECF may have believed in a presence, but I cannot conclude that any of them believed in transubstantiation.
No, they did not merely believed in a presence, but
The Presence. They believed in a literal flesh and blood in the Eucharist, not a figurative flesh and blood.
Lastly, knowing what happens to the bread in the Lord’s supper does not seem essential to my walk with Christ. How do we know that whatever happens to the Catholic hosts does not also happen to the bread at the protestant congregations down the road?
One, because they do not believe in it. Since belief should equal to actuation, or an actual reality that is happening, then the Protestant notion of a symbol does not equate to a Presence. The Catholic and Orthodox view of a real, physical Presence makes it real, as again belief goes into actuation.