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DVIN_CKS
Guest
I’m not so sure…I could swear I read somewhere on these forums where a poster asked if it would be okay to marry his fiance even though he had contracted genital herpes (from a previous relationship) and was asking if using a condom inorder that he wouldn’t infect his future wife would be okay in the eyes of the church. The response he got was that he had no business getting married and should remain single for the rest of his life. The basic jist was that he had no right to expose his future wife to the disease and since condom use was out of the question, it left him with the only choice of staying single and leading a chaste life. I found that advice hard to take. I sure hope the guy sought a second opinion from a more compassionate source.The Church cannot be saying that this is an absolute rule for each and every act of marital sex.
In your example Alan it would make sense for a couple to continue in the marital union even though the wife was rendered sterile from a hysterectomy. But in my example above the use of ABC entered the picture and the guy was completely shunned. However, it leads back to the question: why does EACH and EVERY act HAVE to be open to conception??? I understand how procreation and the unitive bond go together in the sexual act, but fail to see why they can’t, at times, be mutually exclusive without taking anything away from the whole. Matt stated it nicely: “Actually they are not primary and secondary purposes but co-equal qualities that are interdependent. If you intentionally eliminate (by artificial means) the procreative it also destroys the unitive.” How does this happen Matt? How do you destroy the unitive aspect by eliminating the procreative aspect? Am I suppose to feel differently while lying with my husband when we are not being open to conception? Am I to feel sinful? What you write and what the church writes on this is all so philosophically and theologically weak - IMO of course.