Common questions Muslims can´t answer:

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Are you saying that Muhammad did not have sex with any woman to whom he was not married, such as slave women, etc.?

(I am also not speaking as to whether it is recorded in the Quran or not, just whether he engaged in sexual intercourse, consensual or not with any woman who was not his wife.)
The poster said “in the Koran” and that is the question to which I replied. I said what I said, that the Qur’an is not a history of Muhammad. It is not a story of his life, and I encouraged him, as I encourage you, to read the Qur’an to examine for yourself its style and content.

That’s what I said.

You’re asking another question, which you prefaced by the phrase: “Are you saying…” Obviously I’m not saying that, because you could read very well what I did in fact say. So no, I’m not saying that at all, and if I were saying it, it wouldn’t be true. So why do you start with “Are you saying…?”

I get the impression you start that way a lot, but it’s really not something I’m saying at all to which you allude, and then other posters are likely to get confused about what I said in the first place.

So no, that’s not what I am saying. It’s not what I said, nor what I believe. Nor in fact what is the truth of the matter.

However, I will say that Muhammad did not ever fornicate, nor did he ever engage in sodomy, which is what the poster subtly alleged.
 
This is first of all a really offensive post. Because you’re accusing the Prophet Muhammad (saws) of fornicating (something which is haraam–forbidden–in Islam) first, and then of sodomy (which is also haraam–forbidden).
Please forgive her. She is speaking from a Christian’s perspective, in which case it is a ‘haram’ for a person to have sex with someone who is not his wife. ‘Right hand possessions’ don’t qualify as wives.

Islam does forbid sodomy but pedophelia (include small boys) seemes to be accepted.
 
Please forgive her. She is speaking from a Christian’s perspective, in which case it is a ‘haram’ for a person to have sex with someone who is not his wife. ‘Right hand possessions’ don’t qualify as wives.

Islam does forbid sodomy but pedophelia (include small boys) seemes to be accepted.
No sexual activity with a person of the same sex is allowed in Islam. Period. Accusing Muhammad of having sex with little boys is disgusting and ridiculous.

The case of “right hand possessions” is an exception to the prohibition because it is a situation where similar expectations are placed on both parties as in a marriage.

And the question wasn’t about that anyway, was it?
 
The poster said “in the Koran” and that is the question to which I replied. I said what I said, that the Qur’an is not a history of Muhammad. It is not a story of his life, and I encouraged him, as I encourage you, to read the Qur’an to examine for yourself its style and content.

That’s what I said.

You’re asking another question, which you prefaced by the phrase: “Are you saying…” Obviously I’m not saying that, because you could read very well what I did in fact say. So no, I’m not saying that at all, and if I were saying it, it wouldn’t be true. So why do you start with “Are you saying…?”

I get the impression you start that way a lot, but it’s really not something I’m saying at all to which you allude, and then other posters are likely to get confused about what I said in the first place.

So no, that’s not what I am saying. It’s not what I said, nor what I believe. Nor in fact what is the truth of the matter.

However, I will say that Muhammad did not ever fornicate, nor did he ever engage in sodomy, which is what the poster subtly alleged.
That’s what I was asking! I often say “Are you saying…” so that I can clarify WHAT you are saying so that I don’t misinterpret it. Many times you are not clear as to what exactly you are trying to say. Your last sentence is the whole point I am trying to clarify. Given the definition of “fornication” I am trying to clarify if you don’t think Muhammad fornicated AT ALL or just that it is not mentioned in the Quran. I am honestly not trying to confuse people - I am trying to get a clearer picture of what you believe. 🙂

You also confused the issue again by pointing out that the poster said “in the Quran” to which you took offense and said “And the answer to both questions is without a doubt 0. Zero. None.”, so I am trying to clarify if you mean in the Quran or AT ALL.
 
That’s what I was asking! I often say “Are you saying…” so that I can clarify WHAT you are saying so that I don’t misinterpret it. Many times you are not clear as to what exactly you are trying to say. Your last sentence is the whole point I am trying to clarify. Given the definition of “fornication” I am trying to clarify if you don’t think Muhammad fornicated AT ALL or just that it is not mentioned in the Quran. I am honestly not trying to confuse people - I am trying to get a clearer picture of what you believe. 🙂

You also confused the issue again by pointing out that the poster said “in the Quran” to which you took offense and said “And the answer to both questions is without a doubt 0. Zero. None.”, so I am trying to clarify if you mean in the Quran or AT ALL.
The question was “in the Quran.” And the answer to that question is “not at all.” And that is firstly because the Qur’an is not a history book.

Muhammad did have intercourse in a fully permissible fashion. He did not ever fornicate, or commit adultery, both of which mean to have intercourse in a non-permissible fashion. Which makes the answer to the rest of the question also “not at all.”
 
The question was “in the Quran.” And the answer to that question is “not at all.” And that is firstly because the Qur’an is not a history book.

Muhammad did have intercourse in a fully permissible fashion. He did not ever fornicate, or commit adultery, both of which mean to have intercourse in a non-permissible fashion. Which makes the answer to the rest of the question also “not at all.”
Thank you for clarifying your answer.

I disagree with your second statement given the definition of fornication:

for·ni·ca·tion
Pronunciation: \ˌfȯr-nə-ˈkā-shən\
Function: noun
Date: 14th century
: consensual sexual intercourse between two persons not married to each other — merriam-webster.com/dictionary/fornication

Whether it was “permissable” or not is a different subject and up to God. In the Gospel Jesus said it was wrong. Muhammad said Allah said it was OK. 🤷
 
Since SA you are here can you answer this same question.

If muhammad is a prophet ordained by the God of Abraham Isaac and Jacob, then why didn’t he catch the poison placed on his lamb soup, before he ate it? Why didn’t God warned him of the poison?
 
Thank you for clarifying your answer.

I disagree with your second statement given the definition of fornication:

for·ni·ca·tion
Pronunciation: \ˌfȯr-nə-ˈkā-shən\
Function: noun
Date: 14th century
: consensual sexual intercourse between two persons not married to each other — merriam-webster.com/dictionary/fornication

Whether it was “permissable” or not is a different subject and up to God. In the Gospel Jesus said it was wrong. Muhammad said Allah said it was OK. 🤷
Where in the Gospel does Jesus say that it is wrong for a man to have intercourse with captive women under his care?
 
Since SA you are here can you answer this same question.

If muhammad is a prophet ordained by the God of Abraham Isaac and Jacob, then why didn’t he catch the poison placed on his lamb soup, before he ate it? Why didn’t God warned him of the poison?
Perhaps that is how God willed for him to die.
 
Jesus (pbuh) is most certainly NOT a false-prophet, but a prophet of Allah (swt) and messiah.
Hypatia:

A’asalam Aleykum.

If Isa al Musa is who he says he is, and who the Old Testament Prophets say He is, then he is not a Prophet, he is God. If he isn’t, then He is no prophet, He is either a Liar or a Lunatic.

Matthew 3:13-4:11
Matthew 9:1-8
Mark 1:9-13, 21-28
Matt 16:12-20
Matthew 17
Mark 2:1-12
Mark 9:2-40
Mark 15:37-39
Luke 3:21-22
Luke 4:1-13, 31-37
Luke 5:17-26
Luke 9:18-15
John 1
John 6:25-71
John 8:12-59 (several passages)

Psalm 2
Psalm 22
Psalm 110
Isaiah 9:1-9
Isaiah 40
Isaiah 53-55
Joel 2:28-32

There are more, esp. in the Old Testament, but I’m getting tired looking this up, and you do have other things to do. But, it should be obvious that the Lord Jesus Christ claimed to be God and to have the prerogatives of God. I would suggest that, if you want to know what Jesus (Isa al Musa) said and did, you read the Gospels.

Good Luck.

Your Friend…

In Christ, Michael
 
Since SA you are here can you answer this same question.

If muhammad is a prophet ordained by the God of Abraham Isaac and Jacob, then why didn’t he catch the poison placed on his lamb soup, before he ate it? Why didn’t God warned him of the poison?
First of all, you said he died after 3 months? where did you get this information from. The poisoned lamb dish happened in the year 7AH, he died in the year 11AH, that’s a 4 year time gap so where did you get 3 months from? besides, what poison do you know that takes 4 years to kill a person.

Second, he did catch the poison, the jewish woman who poisoned the lamb is Zeinab bint al-harith, the Jews of Khaybar encouraged her to do it in order to get revenge for the death of her brother.
The Prophet ordered his followers to call up all the Jews to speak to them. When they were present, he asked them: “If I ask you something, will you answer me honestly?” “Yes”, they answered. “Have you put poison in this lamb?” he asked. “Yes”, they answered. “Why?” he wondered. “We wanted to know whether you are a true prophet or not” they answered. “If you are a true prophet, this would not hurt you. But, if you are not, we would get rid of you".
Source: Sahih Al-Bukhari, Vol 4, Page 66; Sunan Al-Darmi, Vol 1, Page 33

Another hadith
Al-Khateb relates: "A Jewish woman cooked poisoned lamb and offered it to the Prophet and his retinue. The Prophet said to his retinue: "Do not consume this food. It is poisoned. He then asked the woman: “Why have you done this?”, to which question she answered, “So that I can tell whether you are a true or false prophet? If you are true, Allah will reveal you that this food is poisoned so you won’t consume it. But, if you were false, you would eat it and die. Thereby, I would relieve people of you.”
Source: History of Baghdad,Vol 7, Page 384

It should be noted that Al-Baihiqi and Abu Dawood and other sunni scholars confirmed that the Prophet neither killed, nor punished Zeinab Bint Al-Harith.
Source: Sunann Al-Baihiqi Vol 8, Page 46; Sunan Abu Dawood , Vol 2, Page 369
Al-Zohri, another ancient scholar, confirmed that the Jewish woman was not killed although this was commonly believed by some people. Rather, she converted to Islam, and was forgiven by the Prophet (pbuh&hf).
Source: Musannaf Al-Sanaani, Vol 11, Page 29, Prophet’s Biography by Ibn Kathier,Vol 3, Page 389

Regarding Aisha’s story that he died of a poison he ingested 4 years ago, I posted a thread about that here forums.catholic-questions.org/showthread.php?t=339196
 
Where in the Gospel does Jesus say that it is wrong for a man to have intercourse with captive women under his care?
Sister Amy:

A’asalam Aleykum.

The Lord Jesus Christ (Isa al Musa) didn’t have to. As a religious Jew, and a Rabbi, He had the Law and the Prophets, which (for a man) clearly prohibited sex with any woman who wasn’t one’s wife, and (for a woman) clearly prohibited sex with any man who wasn’t one’s husband. and, In all cases the Law declared sex between men to be an Abomination to God.

Jesus’ mission wasn’t that of a Lawgiver - Moses had done that. His job was to save sinners…
As Jesus went on from there, he saw a man named Matthew sitting at the tax collector’s booth. “Follow me,” he told him, and Matthew got up and followed him.

While Jesus was having dinner at Matthew’s house, many tax collectors and “sinners” came and ate with him and his disciples. When the Pharisees saw this, they asked his disciples, “Why does your teacher eat with tax collectors and ‘sinners’?”

On hearing this, Jesus said, “It is not the healthy who need a doctor, but the sick. But go and learn what this means: ‘I desire mercy, not sacrifice.’ For I have not come to call the righteous, but sinners.”

Matthew 9:9-13 NIV

Just as Moses lifted up the snake in the desert, so the Son of Man must be lifted up, that everyone who believes in him may have eternal life.

"For God so loved the world that he gave his one and only Son, that whoever believes in him shall not perish but have eternal life. For God did not send his Son into the world to condemn the world, but to save the world through him. Whoever believes in him is not condemned, but whoever does not believe stands condemned already because he has not believed in the name of God’s one and only Son.

John 3:14-18 NIV
As I said in another post, I could list more, but we just had a small (5.0 earthquake) a few minutes ago, so I’m going to post this. I hope this deals with the issue you raised.

In Christ, Michael
 
Now…
here’s the questionable line of logic of Muslims
they said that Christ must not have died on the cross, God forbid that torture to happen to his beloved prophets, this is to support the allegation by the Koran that he was not died, against all the historical and biblical record.

And now when someone come up with some resources that Muhammad died due to poisoning, which I believe will have some torturing effect, not to mention withholding 4 years of pain, should your logic tell that God should have prevented it to happen?

All this circular reasoning have been the MO of the Muslims.

:eek:🤷
 
This is also a circular reasoning of Muslim…

When we asked whether we have proof that the earlier prophets like Moses, and Abraham (which we Christian don’t categorize as prophet, but Father of the believers) were Muslim, they answered because they have submitted themselves to God then it qualifies them as Muslim. But they had never known Muhammad, they would never admitting him as prophet, they would never say the Kalimah, the creed to accept the Muslimation. :confused:

Why then we, who believe in God, don’t get the same category of the believer, sort of “anonymous Muslim” too?

When we say that we never approve of the sin of adultery, they keep telling us as if we’re the supporter of that habit. That the sins that we’ve seen happen in the society is the product of our religion? Don’t they understand that we condemn that too. But since they can’t seem to give the appropriate answer to their own problem of “emulation” of their prophets of marrying a child, of making available to have slaves and “take” them as well, etc they keep pointing fingers!

Some say that Muhammad was a product of his own culture and time, he’s not supposed to take the responsibility of what has been the common practice at that time. That only makes him not the “model” for all time! That makes him belong to the category of “sinner” as well!

Muslims have trapped into their own teaching of not idolizing anybody, since they have idolizing Muhammad.
 
MW, you’re a proof of liar

How tiring it is to speak with Muslim

what I said that their reasoning of not believing Jesus died on the cross because they said Allah will forbid such thing happen to prophet 'cos it was too much a torture one can endure! But when we say that about the death of your prophet…you once again run away from the point! You are the one that is dishonest! and lie is not a sin in your religion!

:eek:
 
** In the name of Allah , the Most Gracious , Ever Merciful **

http://theislampath.com/smf/Smileys/default/salam.gif
… Allah will forbid such thing happen to prophet 'cos it was too much a torture one can endure! :
Muslims don’t worship Prophets as dieties . Quran mentioned some of them were killed. So , if Prophets could be killed , why they can’t be tortured ?? 🤷

We don’t believe Jesus (pbuh) died on the Cross because it’s a will of God . God saved him in the past , God did not save other Prophets from death . It does not mean Jesus (pbuh) is son of God or God Himself. Like all other Prophets , Jesus
( pbuh) will have the taste of death when Allah wishes .
 
Where in the Gospel does Jesus say that it is wrong for a man to have intercourse with captive women under his care?
Matthew 5:27-28
"You have heard that it was said, ‘Do not commit adultery.’ But I tell you that anyone who looks at a woman lustfully has already committed adultery with her in his heart.

I will also point out that Muhammad could have been engaging in adultery instead of fornication - it would depend on the timing of his 2nd marriage and the sex with slaves. If he had not married his 2nd wife it could have been fornication, but if he was already married then it would be adultery.

adul·tery
Pronunciation: \ə-ˈdəl-t(ə-)rē\
Function: noun
: voluntary sexual intercourse between a married man and someone other than his wife or between a married woman and someone other than her husband ; also : an act of adultery

I also just read that Muhammad married some women with whom he did not consummate the marriage. Does anyone know if this is true?
Muhammad’s Marriages
We would now like to study Muhammad’s wives and the major incidents that happened in the house of the Prophet, depending on the sources recognised by the majority of Muslims. In spite of the fact that the sources provide us with contradictory information about the number of Muhammad’s wives, we can still say that they were thirteen women, plus Mariam the Copt. Muhammad married these women and lived with them for a certain period of time. Apart from these, there were twelve or thirteen women that Muhammad married, but with whom he did not spend a long period of time. **There are still other women that he married, but with whom he never consummated his marriage, plus the one who bestowed herself upon him. **debate.org.uk/topics/coolcalm/marriage.html
 
Matthew 5:27-28
"You have heard that it was said, ‘Do not commit adultery.’ But I tell you that anyone who looks at a woman lustfully has already committed adultery with her in his heart.

I will also point out that Muhammad could have been engaging in adultery instead of fornication - it would depend on the timing of his 2nd marriage and the sex with slaves. If he had not married his 2nd wife it could have been fornication, but if he was already married then it would be adultery.

adul·tery
Pronunciation: \ə-ˈdəl-t(ə-)rē\
Function: noun
: voluntary sexual intercourse between a married man and someone other than his wife or between a married woman and someone other than her husband ; also : an act of adultery

I also just read that Muhammad married some women with whom he did not consummate the marriage. Does anyone know if this is true?
Waiting for Muslim reply…
 
The poster said “in the Koran” and that is the question to which I replied. I said what I said, that the Qur’an is not a history of Muhammad. It is not a story of his life, and I encouraged him, as I encourage you, to read the Qur’an to examine for yourself its style and content.

That’s what I said.

You’re asking another question, which you prefaced by the phrase: “Are you saying…” Obviously I’m not saying that, because you could read very well what I did in fact say. So no, I’m not saying that at all, and if I were saying it, it wouldn’t be true. So why do you start with “Are you saying…?”

I get the impression you start that way a lot, but it’s really not something I’m saying at all to which you allude, and then other posters are likely to get confused about what I said in the first place.

So no, that’s not what I am saying. It’s not what I said, nor what I believe. Nor in fact what is the truth of the matter.

However, I will say that Muhammad did not ever fornicate, nor did he ever engage in sodomy, which is what the poster subtly alleged.
Did you realize that you did not "pbuh’ mohamad at all in the reply… 😛
 
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