Common questions Muslims can´t answer:

[Hadi]

Booklover,

"This Crime be upon us and on our children."…

Are you happy now ?

 

[jakasaki]

Booklover,

"This Crime be upon us and on our children."…

Are you happy now ?

Hi Hadi,

What post are you replying to?

Edit to add:

Yes, I know it’s for booklover, I just want to know what you are replying to…

 

[Sister_Amy]

Nice to see this thread is still going on.

Head: meet Wall.

 

[Hadi]

Hi Hadi,

What post are you replying to?

Edit to add:

Yes, I know it’s for booklover, I just want to know what you are replying to…

#238

 

[elwill]

But it can be re-instituted unless the Quran has a verse permanently and completely abolishing all slavery.

let us wait and watch if it reinstituted again we will discuss it

So the woman has to prostitute herself in order to gain her freedom and you call that a legal marriage?

you have to read about slavery in that time jay to understand the changes and the benefits which islam came with
islam didn’t come in 20 century where slavery not exist

Does the Quran say the man has to legally marry the woman? And what about if he already has 4 wives?

i think that slave women was counted as wifes , the same as some of the wives of our prophet were slaves women though we recognized them all as to be wifes of mohammed (pbuh) without any distinction

You seem to be willing to condone adultery if it is presented in different terms and seem to think that God also permits adultery under such terms. :dts:

you have a big problem with understanding how slavery was rooted in that era , and some special rules should to be established to cast it out of the society first , such rules not applicaple in our era , because islam allready suceeded to abolish it
i have nothing more to say
just keep in your mind that islam succeeded to abolish slavery , christianity failed ( no offenses)
it’s not fair to condemn islam for such good favors they did to slaves in the world

 

[elwill]

So the only way Muhammad would give them their freedom is for them to have sex with him? He wasn’t honorable enough to be able to free them without that condition?

no , it wasn’t the only way
it’s okey to free them without marrying them
it’s just if the master love one of his slaves and wanted to marry her , so he have to know that she will be free and her child will carry his name and he will be free either , he just can’t to make sexual relationship with her without any responsibilities as the he used to do pre_islam

if he didn’t gave her these rights which islam prescribed for this slave , hence you can consider it adultery

 

[Jay53]

let us wait and watch if it reinstituted again we will discuss it

I am praying that it never does!! So, maybe we’ll never have to worry about it. My concern is that while the rest of the world sees slavery as evil, Muslims view captive women as their property that they are free to have sex with - based on the Quran.

you have to read about slavery in that time jay to understand the changes and the benefits which islam came with
islam didn’t come in 20 century where slavery not exist

I don’t care what time the slavery came in - I fail to see how sexual intercourse with a woman who doesn’t want it is a God-given directive that brings about good.

i think that slave women was counted as wifes , the same as some of the wives of our prophet were slaves women though we recognized them all as to be wifes of mohammed (pbuh) without any distinction

So are they legal wives or not? Did Muhammad have more than the 11 wives normally attributed to him if you count all of his “slave women”? And if a man already had/has 4 wives he cannot have any “captive women”? I’d like to see the verse in the Quran that specifies this and specifies that the captive women are legally wives.

you have a big problem with understanding how slavery was rooted in that era , and some special rules should to be established to cast it out of the society first , such rules not applicaple in our era , because islam allready suceeded to abolish it
i have nothing more to say

I don’t have any problem understanding the situation. Muhammad wanted to have sex with many women and he received his “revelation” making that possible. My problem with this issue is not the slavery per se (yes, slavery is wrong), but the fact that Muhammad made it permissable for men to *have sex *with these women who were captured.
My whole point is not about the slavery, but about the sex which was forced on these women!!!

just keep in your mind that islam succeeded to abolish slavery , christianity failed ( no offenses)
it’s not fair to condemn islam for such good favors they did to slaves in the world

Somehow I think the women who were raped by their masters under Muhammad’s directive would not be happy with the “good favors they did to slaves in the world”.

And I fail to see how Islam succeeded where Christianity failed:

Words are one thing, and actions another. Even today, however, Islamic abolition cannot be called a complete success: Slavery continues to be practiced in at least two nations whose regimes claim to derive their legitimacy from Islam. These nations are Mauritania and Sudan, and Muslims remain virtually silent about the practices of their coreligionists there. findarticles.com/p/articles/mi_m1282/is_9_54/ai_85410331/

The ancient tradition of slavery endures in Mauritania, although it was officially abolished in the 1980s. There are roughly half a million slaves among the country’s population of 3.3 million, and at least 80 percent do not have access to a formal education, Messaoud said. Many remain illiterate. washingtonpost.com/wp-dyn/content/article/2008/03/22/AR2008032202206.html

 

[Jay53]

no , it wasn’t the only way
it’s okey to free them without marrying them
it’s just if the master love one of his slaves and wanted to marry her , so he have to know that she will be free and her child will carry his name and he will be free either , he just can’t to make sexual relationship with her without any responsibilities as the he used to do pre_islam

if he didn’t gave her these rights which islam prescribed for this slave , hence you can consider it adultery

No, if he didn’t marry her I can consider it adultery. Cohabitating couples with children out of wedlock have rights and responsiblities to each other, but it’s still fornication. A married man who has a child with his mistress still has responsibilities to that child, but it’s still adultery.

I’d still like to see the Quranic verse that says the masters are to marry all of these captive women - not just treat them as wives, but actually marry them - where they would be considered married in the eyes of the law and God.

I think you misunderstand my problem with this whole issue. My problem is that sexual intercourse/intimacy is supposed to be an expression of love between a husband and wife that solidifies their union and brings glory to God. I fail to see how having sex with a woman captured as “war booty” does this and can be viewed as acceptable to God.

You seem to be saying that there was no actual “war booty” and that the master simply married those captive women he wanted to have sex with. I don’t think that is the case. I think that if it was the case, then the Quran wouldn’t say it is permissable to have sex with “those that your right hand possesses” - it would stipulate only wives. This is just one of the many reasons that I know that the Quran is not from God.

 

[elwill]

I am praying that it never does!! So, maybe we’ll never have to worry about it. My concern is that while the rest of the world sees slavery as evil, Muslims view captive women as their property that they are free to have sex with - based on the Quran.

enlighten me with the view of christins and jews and churches toward captive women pre_ islam

for the first and last time in the history, slaves were regarded as human beings having rights upon their masters by the teaching of mohammed (pbuh) and his religion

I don’t care what time the slavery came in - I fail to see how sexual intercourse with a woman who doesn’t want it is a God-given directive that brings about good.

becuase it was custom and normal and deeply rooted in this era that people can use there captive women as an object for sex without any responsabilities , and the children of such relation will be slaves with endless chain of slaves
islam now establish restrictions for such rooted behaviours , islam decrease this evil , which was gradually through the time was abolished

it gave that slave some rights from her master which she never had nor any slaves in the world had in this era

and whoever gave up what he used to do for the sake of allah , surely bring him nearer to allah

So are they legal wives or not? Did Muhammad have more than the 11 wives normally attributed to him if you count all of his “slave women”? And if a man already had/has 4 wives he cannot have any “captive women”? I’d like to see the verse in the Quran that specifies this and specifies that the captive women are legally wives.

give me what specify the opposite

I don’t have any problem understanding the situation. Muhammad wanted to have sex with many women and he received his “revelation” making that possible. My problem with this issue is not the slavery per se (yes, slavery is wrong), but the fact that Muhammad made it permissable for men to *have sex *with these women who were captured.
**My **whole point is not about the slavery, but about the sex which was forced on these women!!!

where i said that she was forced to sex ?

Somehow I think the women who were raped by their masters under Muhammad’s directive would not be happy with the “good favors they did to slaves in the world”.

And I fail to see how Islam succeeded where Christianity failed:

where i said that they had the rights to rap slaves in islam ?

christianity existed pre islam for 600 years , with no influencies to such practice as slavery , churches itselfs participated in slaves trade

 

[elwill]

You seem to be saying that there was no actual “war booty” and that the master simply married those captive women he wanted to have sex with.** I don’t think that is the case**. I think that if it was the case, then the Quran wouldn’t say it is permissable to have sex with “those that your right hand possesses” - it would stipulate only wives. This is just one of the many reasons that I know that the Quran is not from God.

whatever the case was
islam came to change evil customs gradually to abolish it in the end
practically moahhmed (pbuh) succeeded

so may be allah allowed it for the period of time as a purpose of gradually changing as he did with drinking alcohol

drinking alcohol were allowed with some limits , then gradually it was prohibited completely

 

[Hadi]

I’d still like to see the Quranic verse that says the masters are to marry all of these captive women - not just treat them as wives, but actually marry them - where they would be considered married in the eyes of the law and God.

4:25 And whoso is not able to afford to marry free, believing women, let them marry from the believing maids whom your right hands possess. Allah knoweth best (concerning) your faith. Ye are one from another; so wed them by permission of their folk, and give unto them their portions in kindness, they being honest, not debauched nor of loose conduct. And if when they are honorably married they commit lewdness they shall incur the half of the punishment (prescribed) for free women (in that case). This is for him among you who feareth to commit sin. But to have patience would be better for you. Allah is Forgiving, Merciful.

If you can not marry a free woman , you can marry slaves under these conditions:

1- Permission of their family for the marriage
(wed them by permission of their folk)

2- Maintaining a good relationship and giving a mahr (bridal money for the bride)
(**You are one from another)
**(and give unto them their portions in kindness)

If the man meets these conditions, the marriage is valid and the slave becomes his official wife.

//////////////////////////
We have given you verses from the Quran regarding slavery ,now it’s your turn to show us what you have in the Bible …

 

[Reuben_J]

4:25 And whoso is not able to afford to marry free, believing women, let them marry from the believing maids whom your right hands possess. Allah knoweth best (concerning) your faith. Ye are one from another; so wed them by permission of their folk, and give unto them their portions in kindness, they being honest, not debauched nor of loose conduct. And if when they are honorably married they commit lewdness they shall incur the half of the punishment (prescribed) for free women (in that case). This is for him among you who feareth to commit sin. But to have patience would be better for you. Allah is Forgiving, Merciful.

If you can not marry a free woman , you can marry slaves under these conditions:

1- Permission of their family for the marriage
(wed them by permission of their folk)

2- Maintaining a good relationship and giving a mahr (bridal money for the bride)
(**You are one from another)
**(and give unto them their portions in kindness)

If the man meets these conditions, the marriage is valid and the slave becomes his official wife.

//////////////////////////
We have given you verses from the Quran regarding slavery ,now it’s your turn to show us what you have in the Bible …

Huh? Mohammad didn’t obey this verse. He could marry free women of his choice, why would he married a slave? Only if he could NOT marry a free woman, he would marry a slave, you say?

 

[trdchubi]

no , it wasn’t the only way
it’s okey to free them without marrying them
it’s just if the master love one of his slaves and wanted to marry her , so he have to know that she will be free and her child will carry his name and he will be free either , he just can’t to make sexual relationship with her without any responsibilities as the he used to do pre_islam

if he didn’t gave her these rights which islam prescribed for this slave , hence you can consider it adultery

           Since slavery has been brought up,I want to emphasize on these points. One,  I understand that the concept of marrying slaves in islam is to free those women from the tyranny of slavery. **Now, fast forward to modern times. Do muslims still possess today  slaves that can be freed from their sorry state and be liberated from the abuses that goes with it by marrying a muslim man? **If yes, Do they have no independence of any kind? Do they possess no rights in their country that only a muslim man can give her the privilege of freedom by being one of his wives? Who are these women that are considered slaves in islam? Is a worker/laborer a slave? A domestic helper/maid perhaps? Im just wondering the number of muslim women in this world that are really slaves that wed to islam to be free.

If no, why is this practice of polygamy being continued when modern society abolished slavery in the 1800s?

Two, As far as I know it, only the not-so-intelligent, the easily swept-of-her- feet girls will accept the fact that she is (d)umber two, (d)umber three, (d)umber four and so on.
Are they not concern by the fact that they are going to share thier man with another woman for life? I believe a smart woman will fight for her man. How come they don’t?

 

[Jay53]

enlighten me with the view of christins and jews and churches toward captive women pre_ islam

for the first and last time in the history, slaves were regarded as human beings having rights upon their masters by the teaching of mohammed (pbuh) and his religion

becuase it was custom and normal and deeply rooted in this era that people can use there captive women as an object for sex without any responsabilities , and the children of such relation will be slaves with endless chain of slaves
islam now establish restrictions for such rooted behaviours , islam decrease this evil , which was gradually through the time was abolished

it gave that slave some rights from her master which she never had nor any slaves in the world had in this era

and whoever gave up what he used to do for the sake of allah , surely bring him nearer to allah

give me what specify the opposite

where i said that she was forced to sex ?

where i said that they had the rights to rap slaves in islam ?

christianity existed pre islam for 600 years , with no influencies to such practice as slavery , churches itselfs participated in slaves trade

Perhaps I have not been clear in my question or my points. This is the verse in the Quran that I am speaking about:

O Prophet (Muhammad صلى الله عليه وسلم)! Verily, We have made lawful to you your wives, to whom you have paid their Mahr (bridal-money given by the husband to his wife at the time of marriage), and those (slaves) whom your right hand possesses - whom Allah has given to you, and the daughters of your 'Amm (paternal uncles) and the daughters of your 'Ammat (paternal aunts) and the daughters of your Khal (maternal uncles) and the daughters of your Khalat (maternal aunts) who migrated (from Makkah) with you, and a believing woman if she offers herself to the Prophet, and the Prophet wishes to marry her - a privilege for you only, not for the (rest of) the believers. Indeed We know what We have enjoined upon them about their wives and those (slaves) whom their right hands possess, in order that there should be no difficulty on you. And Allah is Ever Oft-Forgiving, Most Merciful.

This verse does not say that the man must marry the slave, but that he is permitted to have sex with her. That is the issue that I have a problem with. You are speaking about slavery in general - I am speaking about the permissability of sex with someone who is not one’s wife. That is not from God. God specifically said “Thou shall not commit adultery”. Adultery is having sex with someone who is not your wife. This verse says that God has gone back on His Word and made some forms of adultery acceptable.

And I am saying these captive women were forced/raped because I don’t believe for one minute that a woman who has just been captured in war, whose husband may or may not have just been killed, who has just been told that her marriage is now null/invalid, is going to willingly hop into bed with her captor.

My question in all of this is: What is the point/purpose of a master having sex with a captive woman?

 

[elwill]

Perhaps I have not been clear in my question or my points. This is the verse in the Quran that I am speaking about:

O Prophet (Muhammad صلى الله عليه وسلم)! Verily, We have made lawful to you your wives, to whom you have paid their Mahr (bridal-money given by the husband to his wife at the time of marriage), and those (slaves) whom your right hand possesses - whom Allah has given to you, and the daughters of your 'Amm (paternal uncles) and the daughters of your 'Ammat (paternal aunts) and the daughters of your Khal (maternal uncles) and the daughters of your Khalat (maternal aunts) who migrated (from Makkah) with you, and a believing woman if she offers herself to the Prophet, and the Prophet wishes to marry her - a privilege for you only, not for the (rest of) the believers. Indeed We know what We have enjoined upon them about their wives and those (slaves) whom their right hands possess, in order that there should be no difficulty on you. And Allah is Ever Oft-Forgiving, Most Merciful.

hey Jay , i admire your patience
thank you for clarifying your point
i think that you misunderstood the verse , i will copy for you the interpretation of this verses

Allah says, addressing His Prophet that **He has made lawful for him of women his wives to whom he has given the Mahr /dowery, **which is what is meant by "their due’’, which is used here, as was stated by Mujahid and others. The dowery which he gave to his wives was twelve and half `Uqiyah (measures of gold) so they all received five hundred Dirhams except for Umm Habibah bint Abi Sufyan, to whom An-Najashi, may Allah have mercy on him, gave four hundred Dinars (on behalf of the Prophet ) Safiyyah bint Huyay, whom he chose from among the prisoners of Khaybar, then he set her free, making her release her dowery. A similar case was that of Juwayriyah bint Al-Harith Al-Mustalaqiyyah – he paid off the contract to buy her freedom from Thabit bin Qays bin Shammas and married her. May Allah be pleased with them all.

(those (slaves) whom your right hand possesses whom Allah has given to you,) means, the slave-girls whom you took from the war booty are also permitted to you.' He owned Safiyyah and Juwayriyah, then he manumitted them and married them, and he owned Rayhanah bint Shamun An-Nadariyyah and Mariyah Al-Qibtiyyah, the mother of his son Ibrahim, upon him be peace; they were both among the prisoners, may Allah be pleased with them.

**(and the daughters of your paternal uncles and the daughters of your paternal aunts and the daughters of your maternal uncles and the daughters of your maternal aunts) **This is justice which avoids going to either extreme, for the Christians do not marry a woman unless there are seven grandfathers between the man and the woman (i.e., they are very distantly related or not at all), and the Jews allow a man to marry his brother’s daughter or his sister’s daughter. So the pure and perfect Shari`ah came to cancel out the extremes of the Christians, and permitted marriage to the daughter of a paternal uncle or aunt, or the daughter of a maternal uncle or aunt, and forbade the excesses of the Jews who allowed marriage to the daughter of a brother or sister which is an abhorrent thing.

(and a believing woman if she offers herself to the Prophet, and the Prophet wishes to marry her – a privilege for you only,) means, also lawful for you, O Prophet, is a believing woman if she offers herself to you, to marry her without a dowery, if you wish to do so.' This Ayah includes two conditions. Imam Ahmad recorded from Sahl bin Sad As-Saidi that a woman came to the Messenger of Allah and said, "O Messenger of Allah, verily, I offer myself to you (for marriage).'' She stood there for a long time, then a man stood up and said, "O Messenger of Allah, marry her to me if you do not want to marry her.'' The Messenger of Allah said: (Do you have anything that you could give to her as a dowery) He said, "I have only this garment of mine.'' The Messenger of Allah said: (If you give her your garment, you will be left with no garment. Look for something.) He said, "I do not have anything.'' He said: (Look for something, even if it is only an iron ring.) So he looked, but he could not find anything. Then the Messenger of Allah said to him: (Do you have [know] anything of the Qur'an) He said, "Yes, Surah such and such and Surah and such,'' he named the Surahs. So, the Messenger of Allah said: I marry her to you with what you know of the Qur'an.) It was also recorded by (Al-Bukhari and Muslim) from the Hadith of Malik. Ibn Abi Hatim recorded a narration from his father that A’ishah said: "The woman who offered herself to the Prophet was Khawlah bint Hakim.’’ Al-Bukhari recorded that `A’ishah said, "I used to feel jealous of those women who offered themselves to the Prophet

i hope if this interpretation clear the situaion for you

 

[Jay53]

hey Jay , i admire your patience
thank you for clarifying your point
i think that you misunderstood the verse , i will copy for you the interpretation of this verses

Allah says, addressing His Prophet that **He has made lawful for him of women his wives to whom he has given the Mahr /dowery, **which is what is meant by "their due’’, which is used here, as was stated by Mujahid and others. The dowery which he gave to his wives was twelve and half `Uqiyah (measures of gold) so they all received five hundred Dirhams except for Umm Habibah bint Abi Sufyan, to whom An-Najashi, may Allah have mercy on him, gave four hundred Dinars (on behalf of the Prophet ) Safiyyah bint Huyay, whom he chose from among the prisoners of Khaybar, then he set her free, making her release her dowery. A similar case was that of Juwayriyah bint Al-Harith Al-Mustalaqiyyah – he paid off the contract to buy her freedom from Thabit bin Qays bin Shammas and married her. May Allah be pleased with them all.

(those (slaves) whom your right hand possesses whom Allah has given to you,) means, the slave-girls whom you took from the war booty are also permitted to you.' He owned Safiyyah and Juwayriyah, then he manumitted them and married them, and he owned Rayhanah bint Shamun An-Nadariyyah and Mariyah Al-Qibtiyyah, the mother of his son Ibrahim, upon him be peace; they were both among the prisoners, may Allah be pleased with them.

**(and the daughters of your paternal uncles and the daughters of your paternal aunts and the daughters of your maternal uncles and the daughters of your maternal aunts) **This is justice which avoids going to either extreme, for the Christians do not marry a woman unless there are seven grandfathers between the man and the woman (i.e., they are very distantly related or not at all), and the Jews allow a man to marry his brother’s daughter or his sister’s daughter. So the pure and perfect Shari`ah came to cancel out the extremes of the Christians, and permitted marriage to the daughter of a paternal uncle or aunt, or the daughter of a maternal uncle or aunt, and forbade the excesses of the Jews who allowed marriage to the daughter of a brother or sister which is an abhorrent thing.

(and a believing woman if she offers herself to the Prophet, and the Prophet wishes to marry her – a privilege for you only,) means, also lawful for you, O Prophet, is a believing woman if she offers herself to you, to marry her without a dowery, if you wish to do so.' This Ayah includes two conditions. Imam Ahmad recorded from Sahl bin Sad As-Saidi that a woman came to the Messenger of Allah and said, "O Messenger of Allah, verily, I offer myself to you (for marriage).'' She stood there for a long time, then a man stood up and said, "O Messenger of Allah, marry her to me if you do not want to marry her.'' The Messenger of Allah said: (Do you have anything that you could give to her as a dowery) He said, "I have only this garment of mine.'' The Messenger of Allah said: (If you give her your garment, you will be left with no garment. Look for something.) He said, "I do not have anything.'' He said: (Look for something, even if it is only an iron ring.) So he looked, but he could not find anything. Then the Messenger of Allah said to him: (Do you have [know] anything of the Qur'an) He said, "Yes, Surah such and such and Surah and such,'' he named the Surahs. So, the Messenger of Allah said: I marry her to you with what you know of the Qur'an.) It was also recorded by (Al-Bukhari and Muslim) from the Hadith of Malik. Ibn Abi Hatim recorded a narration from his father that A’ishah said: "The woman who offered herself to the Prophet was Khawlah bint Hakim.’’ Al-Bukhari recorded that `A’ishah said, "I used to feel jealous of those women who offered themselves to the Prophet

i hope if this interpretation clear the situaion for you

So this verse addresses only Muhammad and explains to everyone why he is the only one who is allowed to marry and have sex with multiple women while everyone else is not. Is that correct? The verse does not apply to any other Muslims so that anyone else having sex with captive women without marrying them first would be committing a sin?

 

[elwill]

So this verse addresses only Muhammad and explains to everyone why he is the only one who is allowed to marry and have sex with multiple women while everyone else is not. Is that correct? The verse does not apply to any other Muslims so that anyone else having sex with captive women without marrying them first would be committing a sin?

no , the laws is for all muslims , i just gave you the entire reasons for revelation of this verse with a practical example from the life of our prophet (pbuh)
the vese is forwarded to mohammed (pbuh) because the verse were revealed according to events in his life , but the laws are for him and for all muslims as well

when God says it lawfull to you such and such , it means that it’s lawfull to marry or consumate the marriage with such and such

if you insist to say " having sex with captive without marrying them " then it’s okey but don’t blame me or any muslims for that because me and muslims believe that it’s marriage and i allready gave you practical example from our prophet’s life in the interpretation of the verse
whither having sex with slave women or with free women , all of them involved in marriage contract

the verse said to mohammed (pbuh) that slaves are lawfull to him . then what he did ?
he choose two of them , manumitted them then married them
then what is the conclusion ?
lawfull to him means allowable to him for marriage
it’s not that complex to understand

 

[Jay53]

no , the laws is for all muslims , i just gave you the entire reasons for revelation of this verse with a practical example from the life of our prophet (pbuh)
the vese is forwarded to mohammed (pbuh) because the verse were revealed according to events in his life , but the laws are for him and for all muslims as well

when God says it lawfull to you such and such , it means that it’s lawfull to marry or consumate the marriage with such and such

if you insist to say " having sex with captive without marrying them " then it’s okey but don’t blame me or any muslims for that because me and muslims believe that it’s marriage and i allready gave you practical example from our prophet’s life in the interpretation of the verse
whither having sex with slave women or with free women , all of them involved in marriage contract

the verse said to mohammed (pbuh) that slaves are lawfull to him . then what he did ?
he choose two of them , manumitted them then married them
then what is the conclusion ?
lawfull to him means allowable to him for marriage
it’s not that complex to understand

elwill, thank you for your patience in explaining all of this to me. I truly appreciate it.

Then I am to conclude from all of this that no one is to have sex with a captive woman unless he marries her first and that once a man has 4 wives all captive women are forbidden to him unless he divorces one of his wives first.

Also, am I to conclude from your explanation that Muhammad only had sex with women that he married first - he did not engage in sexual relations with anyone outside the bond of matrimony and that only for him was the rule changed to allow for more than 4 wives?

(BTW, just for clarification, I don’t believe that any of this is actually from God - I truly believe He made marriage between one man and one woman.
As Jesus said:
“But from the beginning of creation God made them male and female. For this cause a man shall leave his father and mother and cleave to his wife, and the two shall become one flesh. Therefore now they are no longer two, but one flesh. What therefore God has joined together, let no man put asunder.” Mark 10:9

This completely negates Muhammad’s claim of polygamy (and divorce) as being from God because it contradicts Jesus’ words. And we all know that true prophets are not supposed to contradict previous Scripture. )

But I appreciate you taking the time to explain the view of Islam.

 

[Sister_Amy]

Jay53, do you think getting married is good or bad?

 

[Jay53]

Jay53, do you think getting married is good or bad?

Depends on what your calling in life is.

In general, I believe marriage (one man, one woman, sacramentally joined by God) is good. I believe that is how God designed it. I definitely consider my marriage to be good - my husband is a true blessing to me from God.

But I obviously don’t believe every person is called to a married life. A single (unmarried) vocation can be just as good/rewarding/pleasing to God.