C
CThomas
Guest
Now and then I drop by and post questions about Catholicism. I don’t ordinarily come by to argue with Catholics, but mostly just drop in when I have something about Catholic doctrine I want to understand better (although sometimes the things I’m curious about do have apologetic implications). So in that spirit of honest inquiry, here goes.
As suggested by the subject header above, this has to do with confession, and specifically the mechanism of this sacrament of penance under Catholic theology. Here’s the issue I’m curious about. I could understand if the idea was that in order for a sin to be forgiven, it needed to be confessed and appropriate penance performed. That is, the act of confession and performance of penance was the mechanism by which the stain of sin is removed. I could understand it, but it would be a very rigorous doctrine, as you would be out of luck if you missed going through these procedures with respect to any single post-conversion sin (if it rose to the level of being mortal). So if you failed to confess due to honestly neglecting or forgetting a mortal sin, you would be out of luck, or if you died after the commission of the mortal sin but before you were able to expiate it through confession and penance.
But my understanding is that Catholic doctrine does not hold to this strict rigorous view. My understanding (correct me if I’m wrong) is that if you intend to confess but fail to do so for innocent reasons (sincerely forgetting one or dying with the intent to confess but before it could be done, for instance), then you’re ok. It is certainly understandable why you would want exceptions like this. But my question is why these understandable exceptions do not undermine the mechanism by which the ordinary process is supposed to work. If you do not, in fact, need to actually confess and perform penance, and if the sincere intent to do so suffices, then how is the purported mechanism of the sacrament necessary even in the ordinary case? In other words, if the good-faith failure to engage in the sacrament means you can get expiated of the sin without engaging in it, in what sense can the sacrament be the necessary mechanism of expiation in other cases?
Curious to hear your thoughts.
CThomas
As suggested by the subject header above, this has to do with confession, and specifically the mechanism of this sacrament of penance under Catholic theology. Here’s the issue I’m curious about. I could understand if the idea was that in order for a sin to be forgiven, it needed to be confessed and appropriate penance performed. That is, the act of confession and performance of penance was the mechanism by which the stain of sin is removed. I could understand it, but it would be a very rigorous doctrine, as you would be out of luck if you missed going through these procedures with respect to any single post-conversion sin (if it rose to the level of being mortal). So if you failed to confess due to honestly neglecting or forgetting a mortal sin, you would be out of luck, or if you died after the commission of the mortal sin but before you were able to expiate it through confession and penance.
But my understanding is that Catholic doctrine does not hold to this strict rigorous view. My understanding (correct me if I’m wrong) is that if you intend to confess but fail to do so for innocent reasons (sincerely forgetting one or dying with the intent to confess but before it could be done, for instance), then you’re ok. It is certainly understandable why you would want exceptions like this. But my question is why these understandable exceptions do not undermine the mechanism by which the ordinary process is supposed to work. If you do not, in fact, need to actually confess and perform penance, and if the sincere intent to do so suffices, then how is the purported mechanism of the sacrament necessary even in the ordinary case? In other words, if the good-faith failure to engage in the sacrament means you can get expiated of the sin without engaging in it, in what sense can the sacrament be the necessary mechanism of expiation in other cases?
Curious to hear your thoughts.
CThomas