It actually takes a lot of faith to believe that although Mary was a sinner, God counted her among the blameless because of her faith in what He promised.
Hbr 8:12 “I will be merciful to their unrighteousness, their sins and their iniquities will I remember no more.”
No purpose in Mary’s sinlessness. Mary identified her Jesus as savior – from what? The wages of sin is death – Mary died! But, not forever, thanks to her faith.
Jam 2:10 “Whosoever shall keep the whole law, and yet offend in one [point], he is guilty of all.” The good news is that although we fell short of the mark (sinned), Jesus took our punishment.
It makes no sense whatever for God to command us to do the impossible when the Word of God clearly says that “with God all things are possible”.
The key is “with God.” The bible says that before we were servants of God we were servants of sin.
Rom 6:20-22 “But now being made free from sin, and become servants to God, ye have your fruit unto holiness, and the end everlasting life.”
If Our Lady was indeed “full of grace” then isn’t it unbelief to say that she did not lead a sinless life?
grace = gift. The gift is salvation, not sinlessness.
Mary was under the law.
Luk 2:27,
Lev 12:6 And, where the law is, sin is.
Rom 4:15"Because the law worketh wrath: for where no law is, [there is] no transgression."
We are righteous because of our faith, despite our sin.
James 2:23"…, Abraham **believed **God, and it was **imputed **unto him for
righteousness: and he was called the Friend of God."
It is clearly not their own works that have merited their salvation, …
Yes, because: Gal 5:4 “Christ is become
of no effect unto you, whosoever
of you are justified by the law; ye are fallen from
grace.”
…but their works are the result of their full cooperation with the God’s graces…
Yes, if cooperation = acceptance of God’s provision (the cross).
…so that their salvation is a tremendous example of the overwhelming power of the grace that God gives us to do his will.
Salvation is an example of God’s love. Power to do good is available to His children.
…we fail to believe that God’s grace is sufficient for us, …
If sufficient, why sacraments?
Romans 5 :12 By one man sin entered into this world, and by sin death; and so death passed upon all men, in whom all have sinned.
Bible doesn’t exclude Mary.
No distinction made between Original sin and actual sin…
Since we’re under the bondage of sin (original sin) we can’t help but sin (actual sin).
St. Paul’s letter to the Romans – I don’t think it is a literal statement.
Rom 3:9"…There is none righteous, no, not one: There is none that understandeth, there is none that seeketh after God."
Of course, it’s literal. This is our pre-God condition.
This is not salvation by works at all, but our cooperation with the free gift of grace from God.
Any light you can shed on this?
Hi Tess, I see you have done your homework.
God Bless
He wants her to be honored. She nursed him from her breast. We simply ask Mary to pray for us and with us to her son. She is right there with Him, and has an understanding and love for Him that no other human being has ever had. Catholics are not *required *to have a devotion to Mary, but it is encouraged because it helps us to understand Jesus and have a closer relationship with Him.
