Could The Blessed Virgin have lived a sinless life?

  • Thread starter Thread starter Church_Militant
  • Start date Start date
Status
Not open for further replies.
40.png
TESSfromCALVARY:
It is clear that even the Blessed Virgin (Mary prophesied that all generations would call her that…why haven’t you?) recognized that her righteousness was the result of the power of God. Is there a record in the NT of her sin? No.
**OBVIOUSLY SHE WAS BLESSED, SHE WAS CHOSEN TO BE THE MOTHER OF JESUS. BLESSED = FORTUNATE, NOT SINLESS.

**
That’s all you could find to respond to?
 
First of all, I am frustrated(whine:( ,whine) by the wording of the choices. Because I wanted to vote #1, but I ended up voting #4. Which is not what I wanted to say.
So anyhow? Could she? Gosh, yes, of course she could. 😉 Good:o (??) follower of John Wesley that I am, I believe that Christians can indeed live a life free from sin. (I don’t think that it* actually *happens a whole lot, but we can). And if anybody ever did it, it was certainly Jesus" beloved mother.
So , “Was the Virgin Mother Mary set apart from the rest of the human race from the time of her conception?” Yes, she was.
“Did she ever commit an actual sin?” I don’t:hmmm: know. ( I wasn’t 😉 there). I strongly doubt that she did sin, though.
“Could she have sinned?” Yes, she could.
“Could Jesus have been sinless if Mary had had a sin nature?” Yes. He was God, ergo, He was sinless.
“Does this mean I believe in the Immaculate Conception?” I am not sure. I still don’t understand it well enough to tell. (And, yes, one of my problems is indeed the :confused: passage from:bible1: Romans).
I am deeply :ehh: conflicted, to tell the truth. But I think that she probably was sinless.And I think that this was the way God made her.
Do I pass, teacher? …Probably not, huh???
 
Hi Zooey!

Thanks for being so honest! I’m sorry if my poll didn’t give you quite the option that you really needed, but I think you offer a very good position and one that shows great faith and confidence in God.

I would also point out that the route you have taken is also the one that I myself basically followed to come to the conclusion that I have offered here. However…I have no such conflicts. It all just fits together lihe the parts of a puzzle. 👍

Pax tecum,
 
(Sorry, how do I use more than one quote in a single reply? Copying text and adding my comments gets me over the limit. And, it takes forever to edit it down to 5,000 characters.)
Church Militant:
Hi TfC, (chapel, I’ll wager…)

**YES.

**…generations would call her that…why haven’t you?)

**OBVIOUSLY SHE WAS BLESSED – SHE WAS CHOSEN TO BE THE MOTHER OF JESUS. BUT, BLESSED = FORTUNATE, NOT SINLESS.

**Is there a record in the NT of her sin? No.

**YES, THERE IS: **Rom 5:18 as by the offence of one [judgment came] upon all men to condemnation; …

No one is attempting to assert that the Blessed Mother did not need a saviour…

**BUT, ONLY THOSE IN TROUBLE NEED A SAVIOR.

**simply that hers was more complete and preemptive (for lack of a better term)

**IF IT WERE TRUE, YOU COULD FIND A BETTER TERM IN THE BIBLE.

**based upon the timelessness of her son’s sacrifice.

**JUST BECAUSE SOMETHING IS TRUE OF JESUS, DOESN’T MAKE IT TRUE OF MARY.

**…the point is that she could most definitely have lived a sinless life

**ACCORDING TO **1JOHN 1:8, MARY WOULD NOT SAY SHE WAS SINLESS.

by cooperation with the fullness of grace …

**COOPERATION = **1JOHN 1:7 IF WE WALK IN THE LIGHT, THE BLOOD OF JESUS CLEANSES US FROM ALL SIN.

Romans 3:23 is some sort of alll inclusive statement

**IT SAYS “ALL!”

**… there being a difference between original sin and actual sins.

**BIBLE DOESN’T SAY SO. THE CHURCH IS TO SPEAK FROM THE WORD OF GOD.

**… weakness that is inherent in human nature because of the fall,

ROM 5:18 SAYS THE FALL HAS CONDEMNED US ALL. ALL IS ALL – NO EXCLUSION FOR ANY NON-GOD HUMAN.

the second being the result of our failure to cooperate with God’s grace in our lives and as a result, do things that are disobedient to the will of God.

FAILURE TO COOPERATE WITH GOD’S GRACE = REJECTION OF JESUS.
 
SORRY, PART TWO!
Church Militant:
God has commanded us to live holy lives and I don’t believe that God calls us to do something that He does not then equip us fully to do.

**I AGREE BUT, ALTHOUGH THE RENEWED MIND DOESN’T WANT TO SIN, WE’RE STILL IN BODIES OF DEATH.

**Again, we are not talking about salvation here.

WE ARE, IF MARY CALLED JESUS HER SAVIOR. SAVIOR REFERS TO SALVATION, WHICH REFERS TO SIN.

The Blessed Virgin’s salvation is a given from the NT context.

**EXPLAIN AGAIN, PLEASE.

**If as you say, “Power to do good is available to His children.”, then you should agree with me completely and be rejoicing in the holy life of the Blessed Virgin Mary, …

AFTER WE ACCEPT GOD’S GRACE (GIFT OF SALVATION), THE BIBLE SAYS OUR OLD NATURE WAS CRUCIFIED WITH CHRIST, AND NOW CHRIST IN US ENABLES US TO DO AS GOD DEMANDS. Gal 2:20 I am crucified with Christ: nevertheless I live; yet not I, but Christ liveth in me: and the life which I now live in the flesh I live by the faith of the Son of God, who loved me, and gave Himself for me.

Only someone who had no knowlege of Christianity

**THAT WOULD BE YOU, MY FRIEND. ADDITIONS TO “THE CROSS” MAKE NULL AND VOID THE GOOD NEWS (GOSPEL). DESPITE OUR CRIMES AGAINST GOD, HE GRACIOUSLY (GRACE) PROVIDED A WAY OUT OF OUR DEATH SENTENCE VIA JESUS, OUR SAVIOR. THIS IS THE GOOD NEWS, THIS IS CHRISTIANITY!

**…the result of something other than the cooperation of a believer with the … grace of God in their lives.

**YOU FRUSTRATE THE GRACE OF GOD IF RIGHTEOUSNESS COMES BY MEANS OTHER THAN THE DEATH OF CHRIST (READ (**GAL 2:21).

…if someone who spent their life in the presence of the Son of God would indeed be that holy.

**WHAT ABOUT HER LIFE BEFORE JESUS?

**Mary is the only person in all of history to ever be called “full of grace”

PHRASE ADDED BY RCC. MARY IS CALLED BLESSED IN SCRIPTURE. John 1:14 And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, … full of grace and truth. Luk 1:42** …an**d said, Blessed [art] thou among women, and blessed [is] the fruit of thy womb.

and I contend that that does indeed make her the most unique of all God’s creations and the first and best Christian of us all.

**UNIQUE AND AWESOME, BUT NOT SINLESS.

**Romans 3:23 cannot be literal, … Infants and children below any age of reason and the mentally incompetent for example.

**GOD WILL DEAL WITH SPECIAL CASES FAIRLY. JUST BECAUSE YOU DON’T UNDERSTAND HOW SOMETHING COULD BE, DOESN’T MEAN WE CAN’T TAKE THE BIBLE AT FACE VALUE. SPIRITUAL THINGS ARE SPIRITUALLY DISCERNED.

**
 
40.png
TESSfromCALVARY:
God has commanded us to live holy lives and I don’t believe that God calls us to do something that He does not then equip us fully to do.

**I AGREE BUT, ALTHOUGH THE RENEWED MIND DOESN’T WANT TO SIN, WE’RE STILL IN BODIES OF DEATH. **

Unless we are given sufficient Grace - which Mary had.

The Blessed Virgin’s salvation is a given from the NT context.

EXPLAIN AGAIN, PLEASE.

One thing is that when Mary speaks of “God my Saviour” she is speaking **before Jesus birth ** - yet she is already saved. She doesn’t say “God who will be my saviour in 35 years time”.
YOU FRUSTRATE THE GRACE OF GOD IF RIGHTEOUSNESS COMES BY MEANS OTHER THAN THE DEATH OF CHRIST (READ (
GAL 2:21).

Are you one of these “No Free Will” hyper-Calvinists?
Mary is the only person in all of history to ever be called “full of grace”
PHRASE ADDED BY RCC. MARY IS CALLED BLESSED IN SCRIPTURE.
No. Protestants have taken it away. The title **Full of Grace ** (kecharitomene) is given to Mary by the Angel in Luke 1.28 in the original greek. Protestants have altered this in their versions.

Romans 3:23 cannot be literal, … Infants and children below any age of reason and the mentally incompetent for example.

**GOD WILL DEAL WITH SPECIAL CASES FAIRLY. JUST BECAUSE YOU DON’T UNDERSTAND HOW SOMETHING COULD BE, DOESN’T MEAN WE CAN’T TAKE THE BIBLE AT FACE VALUE. SPIRITUAL THINGS ARE SPIRITUALLY DISCERNED. **

Exactly. Mary, like the exceptions above, and others is a Special Case. It’s just you can’t bring yourself to admit it.
 
40.png
TESSfromCALVARY:
It is clear that even the Blessed Virgin (Mary prophesied that all generations would call her that…why haven’t you?) recognized that her righteousness was the result of the power of God. Is there a record in the NT of her sin? No.

**OBVIOUSLY SHE WAS BLESSED, SHE WAS CHOSEN TO BE THE MOTHER OF JESUS. BLESSED = FORTUNATE, NOT SINLESS.

**

Two words are translated into English as **blessed ** in the NT.

One, makarios, means fortunate, happy.

The other, Eulogio, means ** exalted, **

BOTH words are used of Mary in Luke.
 
40.png
Axion:
Two words are translated into English as **blessed **in the NT.

One, makarios, means fortunate, happy.
The other, Eulogio, means **exalted, **

BOTH words are used of Mary in Luke

In either case, it doesn’t mean sinless. Because Mary is this, or Mary is that, Catholics assume it must also mean she is sinless, among other things for another discussion.
 
It is not blessed that refers to Mary’s sinlessness, rather full of grace.
from CA library
The traditional translation, “full of grace,” is better than the one found in many recent versions of the New Testament, which give something along the lines of “highly favored daughter.” Mary was indeed a highly favored daughter of God, but the Greek implies more than that (and it never mentions the word for “daughter”). The grace given to Mary is at once permanent and of a unique kind. Kecharitomene is a perfect passive participle of charitoo, meaning “to fill or endow with grace.” Since this term is in the perfect tense, it indicates that Mary was graced in the past but with continuing effects in the present. So, the grace Mary enjoyed was not a result of the angel’s visit. In fact, Catholics hold, it extended over the whole of her life, from conception onward. She was in a state of sanctifying grace from the first moment of her existence.
You can view the whole thing here catholic.com/library/Immaculate_Conception_and_Assum.asp
 
Luk 2:41 Now his parents went to Jerusalem every year at the feast of the passover.

Luk 2:42 And when he was twelve years old, they went up to Jerusalem after the custom of the feast.

wow :bigyikes: 130 votes for yes. are those yes’s to she did live sinless or she could?
 
OK, there’s something I don’t get. I’m not as eloquent as many of you, so forgive me if I .don’t phrase things well. I have a slighty quirky brain:p , so forgive me if I don’t remember where this is in the OT. In the OT, where the Ark of the Covenant is being transported, it started to slip. A man reached out to steady it, and BOOM, God struck him dead, just for touching it. A sinful man touches something that held the Ten Commandments(and a few other things?), which were objects that God had declared holy, and died. Yet Mary carried the holiest one, God made flesh, in her womb for nine months
This is what I don’t get:
How is it that some can think that GOD could be carried 9 months in the womb of a sinful woman and yet nothing happens to her, while knowing that a man touched (only an instant, I’m sure) an object(the Ark of the Covenant) containing holy OBJECTS and he dies? Jesus was much holier than objects He made holy, right?

Also, and this is a wee bit off subject, but why do people jump in with their posts without reading everything that has been posted before? Man, reading the “All have sinned and fallen short of the glory of God” verse over and over from different posters drove me nuts. Of course, some of us are guilty of doing the same thing. We read a post and respond, not realizing that several other people have responded and said the same thing. There was one poster who said that his attitude had changed due to what was being posted on this board, yet much farther down, people were still respond to some of his earlier posts to try and convince him of the truth.

And if I have repeated what others have said about the Ark/Mary, forgive me. I thought I read everything.
 
Momofone:
This is what I don’t get:
How is it that some can think that GOD could be carried 9 months in the womb of a sinful woman and yet nothing happens to her, while knowing that a man touched (only an instant, I’m sure) an object(the Ark of the Covenant) containing holy OBJECTS and he dies? Jesus was much holier than objects He made holy, right?
i guess that’s the protection objects get.

Mat 9:13 But go ye and learn what [that] meaneth, I will have mercy, and not sacrifice: for I am not come to call the righteous, but sinners to repentance.

Luk 9:56 For the Son of man is not come to destroy men’s lives, but to save [them]. And they went to another village.

you know the whole no darkness in light thing?

think of all the sinners he’s healed and forgiven. if Mary had to be sinless to be in contact with the Christ, how would He have been sacraficed without any sinners touching Him?
 
40.png
yqbd:
think of all the sinners he’s healed and forgiven. if Mary had to be sinless to be in contact with the Christ, how would He have been sacraficed without any sinners touching Him?
This is an interesting statement. Consider that all those people received their respective healigs and forgiveness just by showing up and reaching out to Him.

The point is that if Jesus is the New Covenant (as the 10 Commandments are the old Covenant) and the Ark of the Covenant held them and was so holy, then lets consider (in the context of Rev 11:19 and 12:1) that the Blessed Virgin carried the New Covenant within her and that that New Covenant is God incarnate Himself and is infinitely more holy than the contents of that first ark…then how much more holy would the vessel have to be? Nothing else really makes any kind of rational sense at all…all it takes (IMO) is the use of one’s simple God-given common sense as directed by the Holy Spirit and the reading of the Word of God.

As I said before…it seems to me that Mary was meant to be a very intense example of the results of saying a heart and soul “yes” to God.
Pax vobiscum,
 
40.png
yqbd:
think of all the sinners he’s healed and forgiven. if Mary had to be sinless to be in contact with the Christ, how would He have been sacraficed without any sinners touching Him?
This is an interesting statement. Consider that all those people received their respective healings and forgiveness just by showing up and reaching out to Him.

The point is that if Jesus is the New Covenant (as the 10 Commandments are the old Covenant) and the Ark of the Covenant held them and was so holy, then lets consider (in the context of Rev 11:19 and 12:1) that the Blessed Virgin carried the New Covenant within her and that that New Covenant is God incarnate Himself and is infinitely more holy than the contents of that first ark…then how much more holy would the vessel have to be? Nothing else really makes any kind of rational sense at all…all it takes (IMO) is the use of one’s simple God-given common sense as directed by the Holy Spirit and the reading of the Word of God.

As I said before…it seems to me that Mary was meant to be a very intense example of the results of saying a heart and soul “yes” to God.
Pax vobiscum,
 
40.png
Scott_Lafrance:
She had to. The ark of God’s covenant by its very nature had to be pure.
If the first two chapters of Luke are accepted as true, then how could she have fallen? She made her choice when she said yes to the angel.
 
Momofone:
BY THE WAY, HOW DO YOU PRONOUNCE THIS WORD: kecharitomene ?
We English speakers are notorious for butchering Hellenistic Greek (ESPECIALLY the British) but if you go with kay-KAR-ih-toe-may-nay, you’ll be OK. The “K” in KAR really should be soft, “ch” – not as in church – as in “challah.”
 
Church Militant,

In answer to your question, no, Mary could not have lived a sinless life.
Church Militant:
the non-Catholic contention that Mary could not have lived without sinning is the result of a serious lack of faith.
Church Militant, if you can show me, from God’s word, where we are called to have faith in Mary’s sinlessness, I’ll agree.
Church Militant:
It makes no sense whatever for God to command us to do the impossible when the Word of God clearly says that “with God all things are possible.”
Romans 3:20
20 …for through the Law comes the knowledge of sin.

How does the knowledge of sin come through the law? You can’t keep it. God does command us to, as you say “to do the impossible,” (keep his law) in order to show us that we can’t keep it, and so, we learn that we are sinners.

Why is it necessary for the law to teach us that we are sinners?

Galatians 3:22-24
24 Therefore the Law has become our tutor to lead us to Christ, so that we may be justified by faith.

That is why works of the law, and works by the law cannot save us.
Church Militant:
Is it not unbelief that causes us to fall? That unbelief is why we sin…
No. You are born fallen. You sin because you are a sinner; you are not a sinner because you sin.
Church Militant:
St. Paul’s letter to the Romans is making a de facto statement about man’s nature and unbelief in general. I don’t think it is a literal statement.
It is literal. The truth of de facto (and everything else) is found within DEO—a fact.

Your rejection of what Paul says is “the result of a serious lack of faith.”

You are free to reject what I have said.
 
duh… yeah, of course…

just because we can’t fathom it doesn’t make it impossible…imho
 
Scripture is clear that ALL have sinned and fallen short, the only noted exception is Jesus - there’s a number of folks posting on this thread who are ignorant of this fact. Scripture also states that if anyone thinks they are without sin, they deceive themselves. Mary is never mentioned or inferred in scripture as being sinless.

Dozens of early church writings clearly state that Jesus alone was without sin, not ONE indicates that Mary was sinless. Some go so far as to indicate which specific sins Mary was known to have committed (re: Augustine).

Even the great doctor of the Church Thomas Aquinas agreed with the ancient doctor Augustine and did not accept the idea that Mary was sinless.

The Orthodox Church (the first Church established by the apostles) also does not teach that Mary was sinless.

Here’s something to think about. If Mary was Co-Redeemer and Mediatrix, as some here believe, why is there no mention of anything like that in ANY early Church writings? None, nada, ziltch, zippo . . .in fact, of the volumes and volumes of writings covering the first thousand years of the Church, she is mentioned very little. How so for someone who is today reverved as being “Queen of Heaven” and the “Spouse of the Holy Spirit” and “Mediatrix of ALL Grace”? It’s inconceivable.

David
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Back
Top