Originally Posted by Lief Erikson
- The chapter suggests that Adam was created in a barren place.
- It says God put him in the Garden. Perhaps picked him up and put him there, or perhaps led him there. It doesn’t say that man was created before the Garden itself.
- And yes, while it says that man was initially alone, Genesis 1’s statement, “he created them,” does not contradict this.
- Vatican II created some confusion of this kind, when it said that the Bible was inerrant in “faith and morals,” and didn’t mention science or history. Prior to that council, which was pastoral and non-infallible, the teaching of the Catholic Church throughout its history was that the Bible was entirely accurate, in faith, morals, history, science, “in every part.”
- I do not agree with you that “there are many errors of fact.” It may be that a few errors slipped into the texts due to the mistakes of copyists or translators, but I don’t buy that there are many, and I can get you quotes from scholars to confirm that.
beeliner:
If he’d been in a perfectly agreeable environment, why move him to the Garden? Note also that I used the word “suggests.” Anyway, this matter is irrelevant, as it doesn’t involve a possible contradiction.
beeliner:
- I can’t let you get away with that, Liefster, you are just like all the other fundamentalists, you cry Bible, Bible, Bible and then distort every page to fit your own agenda.
Of course it says that man was created before the Garden!
Here are three translations (with MY emphasis), take your pick:
Quote:
KJV: And the Lord God formed man of the dust of the ground, and breathed into his nostrils the breath of life; and man became a living soul. And the Lord God planted a garden eastward in Eden; and there he put the man whom he HAD formed.
Quote:
NAV: The Lord God formed man out of the clay of the ground and blew into his nostrils the breath of life, and so man became a living being. THEN the Lord God planted a garden in Eden, in the east, and the placed there the man whom he HAD formed.
Quote:
GNB: Then the Lord God took some soil from the ground and formed a man out of it; he breathed life-giving breath into his nostrils and the man began to live. THEN the Lord planted a garden in Eden, in the East, and there he put the man he HAD formed.
Here’s another. The New Revised Standard Version says, “AND the Lord God planted a garden in Eden, in the east; and there he put the man whom he had formed.”
The word “then” would prove that the Garden was supposed to be made after the man. There are multiple other translations that use the word “and” instead, though.
The word “had” really proves nothing, if you think about it grammatically. It could be interpreted as, “the Lord God planted a garden in Eden, in the east; and there he put the man whom he had formed [before he made the Garden].” Or it could be interpreted, “the Lord God planted a garden in Eden, in the east; and there he put the man whom he had formed [a few decades after he planted the Garden].” It doesn’t say when he had formed the man or when he had formed the Garden. Only that he had formed them both. The word “had” can be interpreted in this sentence as revealing chronology, but on the other hand, it could just a way of saying that God made the man.
For example, suppose I built a desk and then built the shovel yesterday. I could now say to you, correctly, “I built the desk and after a while put on it the shovel I had made.” My use of “I had made” in this sentence does not denote chronology. It does not have to. It just reveals, the way I say it in this example, that I made the shovel, not when I had made it.
Besides, even if your interpretation of correct, it is physically possible, without a miracle, that God could have created Adam in some barren place and he grew into adulthood, spending maybe 50 years (or, considering how long the Bible says he lived, maybe 400 or 500 years) outside the Garden, and during his lifetime the Lord planted the Garden and it grew, and then after it was flourishing beautifully he put into it the man he had made. The Bible doesn’t say how long Adam had been alive when the Lord moved him.
Neither of these interpretations is inconsistent with the rest of the Bible, and either can work validly within the word choice of the passage and the other Bible passages.
beeliner:
- By itself, that is correct, but you are ignoring the fact that Genesis 1 says clearly that they were created male and female on the SIXTH day, and Genesis 2 has man (male) created BEFORE the plants and trees which Genesis 1 assures us were created on the THIRD day.
Not so, it specifically and repeatedly refers, in Genesis 2, to the plants of the fields. Not the trees or bushes. Which is important in view of the later part of the story, where God tells Adam that he shall hereby have to work the fields and scratch out his own living from them as punishment, because he disobeyed God.
Here’s what it says (NAB version): “At the time when the Lord God made the earth and the heavens – while as yet there was no
field shrub on earth and no grass of the
field had sprouted, for the Lord God had sent no rain upon the earth and there was
no man to till the soil, but a stream was welling up out of the earth and was watering all the surface of the ground- the Lord God formed man out of the clay of the ground and blew into hiss nostrils the breath of life, and so man became a living being.”
The reference to the fact that there were none of these field shrubs because “there was no man to till the soil,” shows that it is specifically referring there to plants that men grow for themselves.
beeliner:
- Nonsense! I will take your word, while doubtful, that that was ‘on the books’ until Vatican II. The concept of literal truth in matters unrelated to religion was abandoned about the time of Kant or earlier. The Catholic Church certainly did not deny the heliocentric nature of the solar system until Vatican II!
I’m not sure what you mean by “the concept of literal truth in matters unrelated to religion,” and I’m not sure what you’re referring to when describing Kant.
beeliner:
- Factual errors in scripture are beyond the scope of this thread, but claiming that there are none apart from copyists’ errors is the very opposite of scholarship. Name one or two ‘scholars’ who make such a claim. Any error can be explained away if no limit is put on how ridiculous the explanation can be.
I don’t find the explanations ridiculous at all, but the vast majority of the claims of error are. For instance, most of the claims of error are places where one Gospel reports something that another doesn’t mention, so people assume that the fact that the other Gospel doesn’t mention it means that the Gospel is denying its ever having occurred. Which is absurd. Omission does not equal denial. Other batches of supposed errors people cite include places where the word order in a sentence is different between one translation and other translations. This is not actually an error, because in Jewish writing, the order of words wasn’t that important to the meaning. Other misunderstandings like these combine to make up the vast majority of supposed errors.
There are lots of Christian scholars who find the perspective that there are no errors beyond those of copyists very valid. Many of them are true experts. Non-Christian scholars, of course, operate on different assumptions, so they might assume error where a Christian would want it proven.
beeliner:
The Bible is a book of faith, not of fact.
That’s one point of view, and there are vast numbers of people who believe it to be both.