Yes. There was the Liturgy of St James, St Basil, St Chrysostom–in that order. All three are celebrated today in very much the same way. (although the Liturgy of St James not very often).
There were others too, some more widely used than the others–those of Hyppolitus, Ambrose, one used in early England, that of the Holy Apostles, the rites of the Ethiopians and the Copts, the Maronites and more (there was a thread a while back where someone listed all the known liturgies that have ever been used).
Then of course there were customs associated with the liturgy that came even later, such as the development of the iconostasis, the manner of receiving communion, etc.
When was the NO instituted? When was the first Latin style Mass?
The Roman Liturgy pre-400s was very, very austere. It was then emerged as something radically different, drawing heavily from the Gallician liturgy. The latest form was issued in 1969.
But again, why is it accetpabel for bishops in previous centuries to introduce liturgical reforms, but not those in other centuries? It’s the same Church today as yesterday–the bishops are entrusted with the same authority as they were in those previous centuries. There are always prudential judgments involved, but to say some objective act that was valid in the past is no longer valid would be to deny the unity of the Church over time and place.
As an aside–I think it’s relevant to this discussion–but I’ve read some Orthodox writers criticize the paradoxical disconnect between the Orthodox Church of today and that of the time of the Seven Councils as if the Church today is one entity subject to the bishops of the 7th or 8th century, instead of it being the exact same entity subsisting through history.