Hi, Tomjoans
I am really having a problem with how to appropriately apply your example…
An alcoholic, by definition, is someone addicted to alcohol. As a Registered Nurse, having worked with chemically addicted patients, I can tell you that there is no recorded case of anyone having become addicted by having one glass of wine.
Now, this same one glass of wine could easily be the start - or, make that re-start, of an alcoholic’s plunge into continued drug abuse after having been sober for any length of time (be that minutes or decades!) But, if your argument is '…better safe then sorry…" what about the obvious potential for a recovering glutton? Are you not going to eat because of the potential for abuse here? If so, about the most you can hang onto that thought is two weeks before simply starving to death.
Gluttony is bad - and why there is no law about ‘driving while eating’ like there is against ‘drunk driving’ the effects can be rather devestating on the human body. So, what is one to do. We do not need to drink alcohol - but, we do need to eat food.
In my opinion, the problem is really confusing the use of something with the abuse of that thing. While one is perfectly free to totally abstain from alcohol as a personal decision - it is a neutral act: neither morally positive or negative. It really is no more praise worthy then abstaining from cake and ice cream. This would be an example of a personal choice. But, I still get the impression that this is sort of an ‘insurance policy’ to get to heaven - and, it really isn’t. The basis for the moral life is to do good and avoid evil - not avoid a good and avoid evil … you have to do something that is good.
God bless