L
LittleSoldier
Guest
When a child was named the first-born (my understanding is that the first-born male was consecrated in some way) was it always referring to the first-born of the mother or did it also refer to the first-born of the mother along with the father? If Jesus was the first-born of Joseph that would mean there were absolutely no siblings because there would have already been a first-born and so it wouldn’t make sense to call Jesus the first-born - unless Joseph had been married previously and had children and the first-born of those children existed before Jesus was born and was called the first-born - the addition of a second wife complicates things.Jesus giving the care of His mother over to John from the cross is good evidence that He was an only child. This is also evident in Jesus interaction with His Brethern. They treat Jesus as a younger than them. Since Jesus is the First Born, they could only be children of another mother.
I guess this all goes into Jewish Law, which is a subject I know little about except that the child of a Jewish woman is considered Jewish. My nephew’s father is Jewish but his mother is not. And so my nephew is not Jewish (of course he could choose to be Jewish but he has not).
:whacky: