But is that because it has been edited to suggest that - or, because it was so delivered ? The parallels to various parts of it elsewhere (as in Luke 6 - see my earlier post) donât suggest it was said all at once. ISTM that unless there is good reason to the contrary - which there may be - Occamâs razor is applicable.
Besides, an argument from the two verses quoted is not evidence of anything by itself - one has to see the whole of those three chapters, so as to see what clues there may be to an answer.
Parallels in Jesusâ teaching here to his teaching elsewhere would do not undermine his having said all that he did at that time. Do you honestly think that each part of his teaching, he only said once? It is perfectly possible that he taught all he did in that scene in Matthew, and he taught it when he did, and he taught many of the same things many other times. And other Gospels sometimes decided to quote his teaching from those other scenes.
Most teachers do present the same facts over and over again to different people. I know that when I feel I know something about the Bible that it would help others to hear, I tell them, and then if I meet others who might find the same ideas helpful, Iâll tell them the same thing also. If I said something two days ago, my saying the same thing again today is not evidence against that having happened.
Also, Gottle of Geer, I see other problems with your arguments against taking the Bible as perfectly historically accurate.
When you talk about the Bible having accusations against Jesus, and suggest that for someone to take the Bible as absolutely literally true, they must interpret the accusations against Jesus as having been true, this fails to take into account the context. When accusations were made against Jesus, it is clear from the text that these accusations were lies. The fact that such accusations were historically made does not mean that they are true, especially as the text itself says that they were not. The Bible quotes fallible humans. The accuracy of the quotation is perfect. The accuracy of the speaker is not. That is because the text is speaking of history.
We believe that the Bible is entirely historically accurate. What it teaches to be true is true. What you are seizing upon, when you take accusations against Jesus, are things that the context will show you are not supposed to be taken as true. Therefore it is going against the text itself, interpreting off of a handful of verses while ignoring all of their context, to say that those accusations were true. One has to go
against the Bible to say that, against the authorâs clear meaning, rather than reading with the Bible.
Accepting something written as historical to be historical is reading
with the author. To accept something the author writes is morally true to be morally true is reading
with the author, also. What you do when you interpret false accusations people made against Jesus to be true is to read
against the author. Itâs reading against the text, rather than with it, for the surrounding verses and other parts of the book youâre discussing make clear that those accusations were false.
One can make the Bible mean anything if one snatches individual verses and throws out the surrounding verses. That is most certainly NOT a literal reading of the Bible. A literal reading of the Bible would accept that those accusations did historically occur, as the author says they did, and to see them as having been false, as the author says they were.
And your quotes from Revelation do not at all negate a literal reading of the Bible. Countless passages in the Bible describe people receiving visions or dreams from God, and usually there is symbolic imagery in them. Revelation was a vision. Therefore there is lots of symbolic imagery in it. To read such things as literal is to oppose the Biblical message about visions, rather than to accept it.
Youâre throwing out all context and all of the authorâs intent in order to form the conclusions you are about your version of Biblical literalism.
Gottle of Geer:
Did He ascend once - or twice ? St. Luke may be foreshortening his perspective in chapter 24 - or he may not. Maybe Acts 1, maybe Luke 24, tells what really happened: the two accounts can be harmonised in more than one way, so harmonisation of them is no good at telling us what happened.
You are right that harmonization, since it can be done in more than one way, wonât give a complete transcript of everything said, in its proper order. However, since it is obvious that these accounts are not contradictory (they only differ by omitting different things, and this is not error), they can both be accepted as true very easily, and one can learn from them. The fact that the complete scene could be organized in more than one way (and some dialogue is almost certainly missing) does not invalidate what we do have, or mean that the two accounts are âno good at telling us what happened.â Absence of some information does not negate any information that exists.
Gottle of Geer:
Even if He did everything He is said to have done, that is no help in identifying whether incidents recounted are the same one or not. Were there 3 encounters with the man who âwent away sorrowful because he had great richesâ - or are they 2 incidents ? One ? Merely to say He did everything said of Him is completely useless as a guide to knowing how many things that means. Several healings look very similar - so the question arises of whether they are related, & if so, how, & why.
So what?
If youâre just saying that there are a lot of true things that the Bible doesnât say, or isnât completely clear on, all by itself, Iâm with you 100%.