Do you have questions about Catholic beliefs & Practices

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I believe post 1030 of “what do you find strange…” our previous thread had an answer. i would only add that I think the gift of discernment did not die out with apostles.

So we hear of forgiveness of sins often cited in scripture thru Christ and His shed blood, and faith in that, even unto baptism and as part of the great commission. And that by the power of the Holy Spirit and Christ’s authority. We do not here of admonition to go to the confessional. In fact, we have admonition to the opposite, confessing not in secrecy, but one to another, and the earliest tradition has it sometimes before the congregation, if fitting.

There is no one that denies that the greatest of remitting of sins is at baptism and or by the washing of regeneration by the Holy Ghost in scripture. I have no problem in associating John 20:23 with this.

Blessings
**Obviously this is NOT what the RCC teaches.

This is a complex issue and as a FYI; I am working on an extensive reply that most certainly will exceed the space limits of the CAF; **so if anyone would like to receive this detailed comparison of Protestant verses Catholic Faith beliefs PLEASE send me a private message. It will take me a few day’s to put it together; **

I will provide both positions and the evidence of what we Catholics believe and just why we do so:)**

**benhur, my friend I do hope you’ll permit me to share this document I’m working on with you.
**

Continued Blessings,
Patrick
 
Originally Posted by PJM View Post
IF Any Soul is Blessed to die without any stain of sin and without any Temporal punishment due to sin; that Blessed Soul is then a saint
THE REPLY
Then he would have no need for an indulgence. Why then does the CC offer them?
My opps:blush:

I was speaking above of a Soul that Had Temporal Punishment [which ALL; even Confessed & Forgiven sins accrue] that needed to be repaid. That is the precise ROLE of [pre-death] Indulgences; which remit in part or possibility and Conditionally in full all of that debt; that is until or IF, that Soul sins again [if they do?] then the debt for that sin or sins must be addressed anew.🙂

Does that answer your question? If not please let me know

Continued Blessings my friend,
Patrick
 
Then there is no need or reason for a Catholic priest if it is directly to God as promised in 1Jn.👍
Apparently the Church teaches differently. You have shown private interpretation of these verses which I don’t accept.
 
Brilliant point because you fail to understand the totality of what Christ taught.🙂
Well then not so brilliant if not taught by Christ. That is the question- what is the totality of His teaching? Indeed you would say I have ‘detracted’ ergo do not have totality. I would say you have added then, and nullifying simple totality.
The assumption [and desired but non-existent-effects] if “imputed righteousness” misses several critical points regards salvation.
Yes, we differ here but not sure how it deals with topic of ‘confessional’ or does IR deal with understanding of the believers priesthood ?
To begin with it has to overlook the 2 infallible rules for RIGHT understanding of the Bible:
[1] Any teaching or belief of matters of Faith beliefs and OR Morals; must in an absolute sense align fully with the Teachings of the CC.
Understand. Yet the bible warns of false teachers arising from the real church. Indeed the church has done well to excise falsehood.However, many think the reformation is part of that historical process in a positive way (excising falsehoods), and others in a negative way(creating falsehoods).

Again, the reformation was partly fueled by the hermeneutics you suggest (historical/traditional). That is,‘my father believed this and so his father, down thru the ages, and so it must be true and Catholic true’. That is OK on some things but not on all things. Christ had the same problem for Judaism had some things wrong (and crucified the Truth), and some things right (Israel fulfilled the Protoevangelium-brought forth the Messiah). So again just what is the true totality of being in, and understanding the Covenant, even the New one?
It is factually and Morally impossible that God would have waited for Luther or Calvin to make know HIS way; HIS mandates and Commands.🤷 some 1,500 YEARS Later.
Again, to general of a statement giving improper slant to true history. Did teaching/practices of 15th C church really exist for “1500 years”, was there no evolving, and did any reformation teaching/views really not exist for those same 1500 years ?
[3] No bible verse; passage or teaching has either the Power or the Authority to make void, invalidate or override any other verse, passage or teaching. Amen!
Of course. Totality.
John 20:19-23 Cannot be directly associated ith Baptism.
Why not ? Such a type of forgiveness of sins is mentioned 17 times in NT.
the other Sacramental Confession forgive sin GOD’s WAY AFTER Baptism
Your position is crystal clear .Thank you. Of the 26 NT verses dealing with sin forgiveness, one or possibly two can be used for your position (John 20 :23, and James 5;15) .The rest deal with the "gospel message, faith in Christ and His blood(19 times) and 4 times amongst each other. Of your two, James in the very next verse says “confess’ one to another”. So now we are left with John 20 . You say it is separate from all other verses instituting a new sacrament. I say it is another way of looking at the great commission and ties in with the other 19 verses.

Again, I agree with your earlier assertion that all these verses must harmonize with each other. Understand you say I take away (the instituting of new sacrament) and I say you add it, and that ‘my’ meaning is gloriously, universally sufficient.

Also agree that history/tradition can help. I doubt anyone knowledgeable 'sacramentalist" here would deny the evolving of the confessional (while not denying its apostolic roots). I firmly believe the apostles did not here confessions of baptized Christians as practiced/taught today. I also firmly believe the earliest church confessed to the God (even to Him with in themselves), and one to another(could have been an elder /priest), and at times to the congregation when appropriate. Lastly, I firmly believe you also have strong and obvious evidences of further historical /traditional development of the current CC doctrine /practice. We only differ in belief of its apostolic roots.

Blessings
 
**Obviously this is NOT what the RCC teaches.

This is a complex issue and as a FYI; I am working on an extensive reply that most certainly will exceed the space limits of the CAF; **so if anyone would like to receive this detailed comparison of Protestant verses Catholic Faith beliefs PLEASE send me a private message. It will take me a few day’s to put it together; ****

I will provide both positions and the evidence of what we Catholics believe and just why we do so:)

**benhur, my friend I do hope you’ll permit me to share this document I’m working on with you.
**

Continued Blessings,
Patrick
Yes. Did get your message .Thanks

Blessings
 
Well, there is nothing I believe that is officially taught in this regard. I believe though that it is safe to say that God will see to it that all of those in Purgatory will have finished their purgation by the time Our Lord Jesus comes again.

May God bless you abundantly and forever! 🙂
God’s blessings to you as well.

Then what about those who are still alive when Christ returns? Wouldn’t they still have to have their sins purged as well?

🤷

:rolleyes: Rita
 
The REPLY

Just a further thought here:) [PJM]

All the Souls in Purgatory will be released

And this IS a part of the FINAL Judgment [there are 2: Judgments: At the instant of death the Immediate Judgment & at the End Times the Final Judgment where previous judgment is affirmed [NEVER changed], and the reuniting of our NOW immoral and glorified bodies emulating Jesus’ Resurrected Body are again united forever!

In that final judgment the Souls left on earth at that time will be immediately judged worthy of the Beatific Vision [Being WITH Jesus] or Eternal hell. There will then be no further need for Purgatories Soul-cleansing mission; as God has NOW conquared Satan and ALL evils. Amen:thumbsup:
But this doesn’t make sense to me. Why would all the others have had to go through Purgatory if those who are alive when Jesus’ returns don’t have to. Wouldn’t they have to suffer before they enter heaven, too?
 
Do catholics pay homage to relics anymore? (relics of Christ or relics of certain saints)

I think Pope John Paul II was brought some bones to hold on to (while he was recovering from getting shot)
 
Apparently the Church teaches differently. You have shown private interpretation of these verses which I don’t accept.
But at least we understand each others position. Of cource, I know you would not accept my interpretation.
I would also say that your position is a private interpretation because it does not take into account all the scriptures on the subject and is therefore a private interpretation.

Shalom,
Jerry
 
But at least we understand each others position. Of cource, I know you would not accept my interpretation.
I would also say that your position is a private interpretation because it does not take into account all the scriptures on the subject and is therefore a private interpretation.

Shalom,
Jerry
I believe the Church has taken the whole of scripture into account and therefore the teaching is sound. It is not my private interpretation
 
But at least we understand each others position. Of cource, I know you would not accept my interpretation.
I would also say that your position is a private interpretation because it does not take into account all the scriptures on the subject and is therefore a private interpretation.

Shalom,
Jerry
I understand your frustration on this teaching. The Bible is a Catholic book and it does not contradict Church teaching.
 
But this doesn’t make sense to me. Why would all the others have had to go through Purgatory if those who are alive when Jesus’ returns don’t have to. Wouldn’t they have to suffer before they enter heaven, too?
Because they have suffered through the tribulation.
 
Because they have suffered through the tribulation.
I have been curious jto see how this question would get answered and I am intrigued by your answer. Please tell us more concerning this. I had understood that purpose of purgatory was to cleanse the soul so it was fit for heaven. I don’t think I have ever heard that the tribulation would accomplish this for those who live through it. Please elaborate.
 
Originally Posted by Michael68
Can you please explain what Jesus was talking about when he said “Receive the Holy Spirit. Whose sins you forgive are forgiven them and whose sins you retain are retained” John 20:22-23. How can this happen if they weren’t hearing confessions?
The REPLY from eazydusit
First of all, it has to do with the HS. They are to be guided by Him. But the HS could not yet indwell believers individually until Jesus had ascended to the Father. He said receive ye (all) the HS as in community. V. 23, He says " Whosoever sins ye (all) remit…", so this is to be exercised as a community within the guidance of the HS.
But John also tells us of the ordinary way of forgiveness for the individual in 1Jn2:1 “And If any man sin, we have an advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous.” He is our advocate and we go to Him and not the Catholic priest. According to Heb7:25 He is also our intercessor and not the priest.
In Ps. 51, King David confesses his sin directly to God and receives
forgiveness
Inserted by PJM

Here’s what your both missing in brief.

[1] You’re way is the OT. OLD Covenant way which has been overridden by the New Covenant: Jesus; grace and His Church. It was then admitted and permitted by God; NOW it is NOT the precise and mandated way Jesus Choose to have man’s sins forgiven.

[2] In a previous post a detailed this information. But if I were a betting man {I’m not, which is great part of the reason I AM a Catholic]; I’d give a MILLION to One Odds on praying to God directly and having your sins actually forgiven.

WHY: Because we ARE sinners. And soon sin and asking God for forgiveness which essentially requires BOTH sincere contrition; evidenced by an altered life style AND specifically; precisely and perfectly doing so for love or God; NOT fear of hell. It is GOD himself who determines if your action MEET His criteria. It is PRECISELY this reason; known by God that He Instituted Sacramental-Confession where “contrition” has to be “sincere: BUT NOT perfect. And this is a HUGE difference in sin forgiveness because it is the manner Commanded and demanded by our God. Amen!

What you’re doing is effective dictating to God how He God MUST forgive your sins. This seems to me to be VERY imprudent.
God Bless you,
Patrick
 
Then there is no need or reason for a Catholic priest if it is directly to God as promised in 1Jn.👍
Friend IT IS NOT SO PROMISED IN JOHN :eek:

Here are the 2 Infallible rules for RIGHT understanding of the Bible
[1] It what you believe does not align fully with the CC its wrong and needs to be changed

[2] NEVER-EVER can, may or does one verse; passage; or teaching have the authority or the POWER to make void; invalidate or override another verse; passage or teaching:)

Were this even the slightest possibity it WOULD invalidate the entire bible:eek:

2nd. Tim. 3:16-17"All scripture,[IS] inspired of God, is profitable to teach, to reprove, to correct, to instruct in justice,That the man of God may be perfect, furnished to every good work".

2nd. Peter 1: 16-21 “You will do well to pay attention to this as to a lamp shining in a dark place, until the day dawns and the morning star rises in your hearts. First of all you must understand this, that no prophecy of scripture is a matter of one’s own interpretation, because no prophecy ever came by the impulse of man, but men moved by the Holy Spirit spoke from God.”

Here’s what your both missing in brief.

[1] You’re way is the OT. OLD Covenant way which has been overridden by the New Covenant: Jesus; grace and His Church. It was then admitted and permitted by God; NOW it is NOT the precise and mandated way Jesus Choose to have man’s sins forgiven.

[2] In a previous post a detailed this information. But if I were a betting man {I’m not, which is great part of the reason I AM a Catholic]; I’d give a MILLION to One Odds on praying to God directly and having your sins actually forgiven.

WHY: Because we ARE sinners. And soon sin and asking God for forgiveness which essentially requires BOTH sincere contrition; evidenced by an altered life style AND specifically; precisely and perfectly doing so for love or God; NOT fear of hell. It is GOD himself who determines if your action MEET His criteria. It is PRECISELY this reason; known by God that He Instituted Sacramental-Confession where “contrition” has to be “sincere: BUT NOT perfect. And this is a HUGE difference in sin forgiveness because it is the manner Commanded and demanded by our God. Amen!

What you’re doing is effective dictating to God how He God MUST forgive your sins. This seems to me to be VERY imprudent.

God Bless you,

Patrick
 
Not the Sacrament is directly to God through Jesus Christ* through the priest *? Otherwise, amen to your underlined (except the need for word “Sacrament”). Of course a Sacrament needs a priest, so my question is mute, but then begs the question of your definition of “direct”.

Blessings
Here’s what your both missing in brief.

[1] You’re way is the OT. OLD Covenant way which has been overridden by the New Covenant: Jesus; grace and His Church. It was then admitted and permitted by God; NOW it is NOT the precise and mandated way Jesus Choose to have man’s sins forgiven.

[2] In a previous post a detailed this information. But if I were a betting man {I’m not, which is great part of the reason I AM a Catholic]; I’d give a MILLION to One Odds on praying to God directly and having your sins actually forgiven.

WHY: Because we ARE sinners. And soon sin and asking God for forgiveness which essentially requires BOTH sincere contrition; evidenced by an altered life style AND specifically; precisely and perfectly doing so for love or God; NOT fear of hell. It is GOD himself who determines if your action MEET His criteria. It is PRECISELY this reason; known by God that He Instituted Sacramental-Confession where “contrition” has to be “sincere: BUT NOT perfect. And this is a HUGE difference in sin forgiveness because it is the manner Commanded and demanded by our God. Amen!

What you’re doing is effective dictating to God how He God MUST forgive your sins. This seems to me to be VERY imprudent.

God Bless you,
Patrick
 
if not taught by Christ. That is the question- what is the totality …

Understand. Yet the bible warns of false teachers arising from the real church. Indeed the church has done well to excise falsehood.However, many think the reformation is part of that historical process in a positive way (excising falsehoods), and others in a negative way
.

REALLY? I missed that. Can you tell me where it is? The Bible is a Catholic Book; written for Catholics; whose authors did not foresee the Reformation. as for the legitimacy of the revolution;** Mt. 16:18-19; Jn 17:16-20; & Mt 28:18-20 **precisely deny that possibility. Historically Yahweh and Jesus Both choice for reasons we will only uncover in our eternal-life; choose One People [Exo 6:7 & and ditto for Chirst 'MY Church" singular…There exist to my limited knowledge not a single instance of God permitting, tollerateing, or accepting ANY competing faiths or faith beliefs:shrug:.

{Quote]Again, the reformation was partly fueled by the hermeneutics you suggest (historical/traditional). That is,‘my father believed this and so his father, down thru the ages, and so it must be true and Catholic true’. That is OK on some things but not on all things. Christ had the same problem for Judaism had some things wrong (and crucified the Truth), and some things right (Israel fulfilled the Protoevangelium-brought forth the Messiah). So again just what is the true totality of being in, and understanding the Covenant, even the New one?

Let’s assume for a minute that your right. It would require either that the bible is is GRAVE error; or that God led. Which in you’re opinion is it?
Again, to general of a statement giving improper slant to true history. Did teaching/practices of 15th C church really exist for “1500 years”, was there no evolving, and did any reformation teaching/views really not exist for those same 1500 years ?
Of course. Totality;QUOTE]
I’m sure its because I’m only on my second cup of coffee, BUT I see your question as being irreverent.
Certainly the Church evolved; BUT “truth” remains whether its defined or not. Both Catholic Doctrine and Dogma traditionally steemed and flowed through prior existing beliefs and practices; which were guided by the Holy Spirit as Promised. THEE Church dealt quickly and most often precisely with the emerging heresies. .
As to reformation views existing before the reformation: Certainly they did and they were called and addressed as Heresies. Something does not become true; simply because many accepted the most often EASIER teaching. A Heresy remains a heresy [Look at the bottom under by signature:) And former Pope Benedict taught this truism:
**“There cannot be your truth AND my truth or their would be NO truth.”…
Why not ? Such a type of forgiveness of sins is mentioned 17 times in NT. Your position is crystal clear .Thank you. Of the 26 NT verses dealing with sin forgiveness, one or possibly two can be used for your position (John 20 :23, and James 5;15) .The rest deal with the "gospel message, faith in Christ and His blood(19 times) and 4 times amongst each other. Of your two, James in the very next verse says “confess’ one to another”. So now we are left with John 20 . You say it is separate from all other verses instituting a new sacrament. I say it is another way of looking at the great commission and ties in with the other 19 verses
My friend are you a pastor? You’re well informed.

Here’s what your missing:
Just a few post ago I supplied the two Infallible rules for right understanding of the Bible.

Never can one part of the bible invalidate; void or override another part. Such would render the entire bible useless. Your culling passages that REQUIRE personal interpretation while OVER-LOOKING a teaching that is so precise that it does not.🙂

“Truth is the condition of grace; it is the source of grace; it is the channel of grace; it is the divinely ordained requirement of grace.”
Fr. John A. Hardon S. J.

John.20 Verses 20 to 23"On the evening of that day, the first day of the week, the doors being shut where the disciples were, for fear of the Jews, Jesus came and stood among them and said to them, “Peace be with you.” When he had said this, he showed them his hands and his side. Then the disciples were glad when they saw the Lord. Jesus said to them again,** “Peace be with you. As the Father has sent me, even so I send you.”** And when he had said this, he breathed on them, and said to them, "Receive the Holy Spirit. If you forgive the sins of any, they are forgiven; if you retain the sins of any, they are retained."
**
2nd. Peter 3: 14-17 **“Therefore, beloved, since you wait for these, be zealous to be found by him without spot or blemish, and at peace. And count the forbearance of our Lord as salvation. So also our beloved brother Paul wrote to you according to the wisdom given him, speaking of this as he does in all his letters. There are some things in them hard to understand, which the ignorant and unstable twist to their own destruction, as they do the other scriptures. You therefore, beloved, knowing this beforehand, beware lest you be carried away with the error of lawless men and lose your own stability

**2nd. Peter 1: 16-21 **“You will do well to pay attention to this as to a lamp shining in a dark place, until the day dawns and the morning star rises in your hearts. First of all you must understand this, that no prophecy of scripture is a matter of one’s own interpretation, because no prophecy ever came by the impulse of man, but men moved by the Holy Spirit spoke from God.”

THIS wll because of lenght be in two parts

End of pt 1 of 2
 
PART 2 of 2 REPLY to benhur by PJM

PART 2 of 2
Again, I agree with your earlier assertion that all these verses must harmonize with each other. Understand you say I take away (the instituting of new sacrament) and I say you add it, and that ‘my’ meaning is gloriously, universally sufficient
Here I might agree with a caveat: Cf.We teach and the Church has LONG taught that there are 7 Sacraments ALL instituted by Christ to give the grace that they signify. In other words through Jesus explicitly or implicitly through the Authority of ALL of the Key’s to heaven entrusted to Her; guided by the H S precisely and exclusively to aid men meriting Final Justification [init ally granted through Baptism]… .

On the CrossJesus mere moments before dying shouted I thirst! What did He mean? He meant that he DESIRED to do more than was already evident…

Jn 19:26-28 "26] When Jesus therefore had seen his mother and the disciple standing whom he loved, he saith to his mother: **Woman, behold thy son. After that, he saith to the disciple: Behold thy mother. And from that hour, the disciple took her to his own. **Afterwards, Jesus knowing that all things were now accomplished, that the scripture might be fulfilled, said: I thirst"

Here is HOW that MORE is manifested:

{1] BY establishing His One True Church and granting it everything She need to prosper and grow in fulfillment of Her Mandate** Mt 28: 19-20**

[2] Jesus Instituted through that Church the 7 Sacramrnts each intended to be a AID to man’s salvation efforts

[3] Jesus gave to His Church His Mother as an intercessor and as a role model for us to utilize and follow Christ as She DID.** Jn 19: 26-27**
Also agree that history/tradition can help. I doubt anyone knowledgeable 'sacramentalist" here would deny the evolving of the confessional (while not denying its apostolic roots). I firmly believe the apostles did not here confessions of baptized Christians as practiced/taught today
Friend, as you no doubt know God using priest for the forgiveness of sins was a Jewish mandated Tradition dating at leas back to Moses. Lev 5 & 6; so SOME sort of Confession to PRIEST dates back VERY likely to the Apostles and early Bishops themselves.

Acts 20:28-30 [altered by Luther] “Take heed to yourselves, and to the whole flock, wherein the Holy Ghost hath placed you bishops, to rule the church of God, which he hath purchased with his own blood. I know that, after my departure, ravening wolves will enter in among you, not sparing the flock. And of your own selves shall arise men speaking perverse things, to draw away disciples after them”

Certainly Sacramental Baptism is SOME form existed from the time of the Apostles as John The Baptist even did Jesus…
I also firmly believe the earliest church confessed to the God (even to Him with in themselves), and one to another(could have been an elder /priest), and at times to the congregation when appropriate. Lastly, I firmly believe you also have strong and obvious evidences of further historical /traditional development of the current CC doctrine /practice. We only differ in belief of its apostolic roots.
Blessings
Continued Blessings MY friend!
 
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