Ianman,
First just let me say thank you for your sincere responses. This has been good in my opinion. Forgive me, but I continue to want to ask follow-up questions. If you want to take it to a private message, I’m fine with that.
You’ve already stated that explicit Baptist writings don’t show up in Christian antiquity until the 16th century. Then, you say (on behalf of restorationist churches I understand) that the intention of Baptists is to return the church to her original teachings from the New Testament. But, if there’s no evidence of those original Baptist teachings of the New Testament in Christian history until the 16th century, then what were those first Baptists in the first century trying to return to? I would claim that the lack of historical written evidence of their explicit Baptist teachings in antiquity indicate that no such teaching ever existed to be returned to. And I’m asking you if that concerns you. Because if there’s no evidence that those Baptist teachings ever existed until the 16th century, then how do you know that the one who, with the intent of returning to an earlier teaching, derived the doctrine of Baptist theology wasn’t in reality actually making up a totally new Christian doctrine instead of returning to a pre-existing one.
I would imagine you would point to the Bible and claim how Baptist theology coincides with it as proof. But, Catholic theology coincides with the Bible also and in addition to that, there exists historical written evidence that Catholicism has existed from the 1st century, whereas with Baptist theology, no such evidence exists.
Did that make sense?