MT1926:
Once again all I am arguing is interpretation here, nothing else. Where do we draw the DATE line on the correct interpretation of scripture? The reason I ask is because it seems that you are willing to stand with the fathers when they speak about scriptures being an umpire but you don’t seem to want to stand with them when they sound awfully Catholic.
I didn’t get on the internet much this weekend and instead spent time doing chores, relaxing with my family and having some down time. I did have some time to think about this conversation. I also spent some time reading some church history.
To me the bottom line is the church does have authority, as long as it keeps the Gospel teachings of the apostles.
The reason I think the Catholic church teaches things that weren’t taught by the apostles is because you can read history and find out when/where/why those things started to be taught and how they developed the teachings.
The question about all doctrines is “Was the doctrines something taught by Christ and the Apostles or something developed by Canon Lawyers and Theologians?”
Take for instance, the Doctrine of Papal Infallibility (which I read about this past weekend). No such thing had ever been thought about before the year circa 1300. Before 1300 the prevailing belief (by canon lawyers) was that in matters of faith a general council was greater than a pope. They did not teach the pope was infallible. The doctrine of Papal Infallibility came about because Franciscans had received Papal sanction that the “Franciscan way of life did indeed correspond to the way of perfection the Christ had taught to the apostles”. Peter Olivi, a leading Franciscan, was the first to developed the doctrine of Papal Infallibility because he feared a future pope would overturn the privileges given to the Franciscans by the Pope. When this actually happened and Pope John XXII later revoked the privileges granted to Franscisans the Franciscan order "defended the doctrine of evangelical poverty and denounced John XXII as a heretic for attacking the doctrine and, for the first time, said the Pope (in this case the earlier Pope Nicholas III) was infallible on matters of faith and morals when he used the “Keys” to define faith and morals.
So we see that the entire doctrine of Papal Infallibility was developed by Franciscans wanting to keep Papal support of their doctrine. We can then move on in the future and see the doctrine gain support as the various councils and popes sparred over authority. In the end, It took a political crisis of the Catholic church losing support and power for the climate to be ripe for Papal Infallibility to be declared dogma at Vatican I.
No matter how you slice it. Papal infallibility (as an example) was not part of the teachings (either written or oral) of Christ and the Apostles.