M
MT1926
Guest
Could you expand on this please? The reason I ask is because if the Church has the authority to interpret the scriptures then how can you or I claim we have the authority to proclaim She is not keeping with the teaching of the Apostles? Does that make sense? Either Jesus gave the authority to bind and loose to His Church or He gave it to us. But as the saying goes if everyone is in charge then no one is in charge.church does have authority,
For instance if the Church uses it’s authority to interpret Purgatory, from the scriptures, how can we go and say well that was never preached by the Apostles? To me it makes no sense because the Church is saying yes they did see it is right here in the pages of scripture. Just cause we don’t agree with the interpretation doesn’t mean the Apostles never taught it.
Either Jesus gave the Church authority or He gave us authority. In the end someone always has to have the final say or there is no way we can ever know Christ’s Truth.
Do you think we are to believe the first time we see something written about is the first time it was taught and prior to that it wasn’t true?you can read history and find out when/where/why .
Well do you believe St. Peter was infallible?the Doctrine of Papal Infallibility
Regardless of what you see in later writing you know that Catholics believe St. Peter was the first Pope and I am sure you would agree that St. Peter taught infallible wouldn’t you?
Sure this isn’t absolute evidence but common sense should at least make you think twice about what you write here about no one has ever even given this a thought before. I’m sure Peter and the other Apostles thought St. Peter was infallible in the book of Acts.
The only way you can make this claim is to say that the Apostles themselves did not teach infallible.Papal infallibility was not part of the teachings of Christ and the Apostles.
First you have to answer the question of whether or not St. Peter taught infallible or not? After you answer that question then you could get into the thought process of whether or not we would need someone to infallible interpret the meaning of scripture during the second century after the death of the last Apostle. Basically was there anything that we believe today that was not yet infallible defined after the year 100?
Personally, I think it is illogical to think that the Apostles taught everything, from every angle, and came across every possible objection during their short lives.
Before I end I just want to point out that my question stated all I am arguing is interpretation and yet again instead of answering my question you brought up another example that you disagree with instead of answering my question.
I mean no disrespect but deep down why do you think you keep avoiding my question on who has the authority to interpret?
God Bless