Question 2) what is the difference between the evidence for the paranormal and for God?
Evidence for God is philosophical. God and immaterial entities are outside matter and thus not subject to scientific investigation.
You keep repeating it, but so far did not elaborate on it. I made two extensive posts and you did not answer yet. Hopefully you will. You use the phrase “immaterial entities”… what does that phrase mean? Angels, demons? Ghosts?
Of course you are wrong, when you exclude these hypothetical beings from the realm of scientific investigation. The point is that these “entities” supposedly interact with the physical world, and as such they could be “caught” through the interface, if they existed. The church maintains a group of exorcists. These people are “trained” to detect alleged demonic activities (I sure would be delighted to read their textbooks… and see the practical exam, when they confront an actual demon), and are supposed to use some tools in this physical existence to expel these “nasty” demons.
Now you may contend that this exorcism is sheer nonsense. But if you accept it as real, then you refuted your own claim about “immaterial entities” being outside the “scientific” investigation.
Your remarks?
Al Moritz;12489936:
I view the paranormal, such as extrasensory perception, telekinesis, or telepathy as properties of matter that contradict what we know from the laws of nature.
Not exactly. There is no contradiction (again!) though it is true that there is no supporting evidence for the existence of paranormal events. But, as a scientist, you are aware that our knowledge is finite, so “maybe” there are ways and means to substantiate the paranormal phenomena. We cannot a-priori exclude such a possibility.
As such it would be subject to the same empiricism as any other scientific investigation.
Indeed, and so far the investigation turned up to be negative. No sign of “divining rods”, or “auras”, or “telekinesis”. I agree that your skepticism is well founded. The point is that there is no evidence for the claim that there are “miraculous” healings at Lourdes, that the prayers (sometimes) positively influence the “immutable” God. My question is: “why the inconsistency”?
I don’t believe in such paranormal things, by the way, nor do I believe in the occult like Ouija boards.
And very sensibly so. I was hoping that your answer to “why you don’t believe in such phenomena?” would be a short, succinct: “because there is no supporting evidence”.