S
semper_catholicus
Guest
Those who are apart of Christ’s Church by virtue of their baptism can separate themselves from it by schism.
This is patently contrary to what the Catholic Church teaches. The CC would not consider EO Holy Orders valid, and the Sacraments valid, if they were “stolen, borrowed” or they had no “right” to do them!When Eastern Orthodox priest administers confession, baptism or sacrament of Holy Orders, he administers Catholic Sacrament- but it is not his right to do it. It is “stolen” or “borrowed” in a sense- therefore while it remains of course valid as he used property of the Church, lawfully speaking he had no right to use it because he himself is not part of the Church.
This is not consistent with what the CC teaches either.They possess the valid sacrament of Eucharist- and therefore we recognize them as “church” but not as Church.
Yes, there are many that are in a state of imperfect communion, but of those, our differences with the EO are the least.What we generally call full Communion applies to someone who has same faith as Church, isnt in anathema and is submissive to authority of Church.
Because canon laws are human laws. A Catholic priest can administer sacraments unlawfully also. One is to have permission of the Bishop to perform sacramental duties in a diocese. One is given faculties, or permission to serve temporarily. If their faculties are removed, it is no longer lawful for them to perform sacraments in the diocese. Sometimes this is a disciplinary action.If the Orthodox have apostolic succession, therefore a valid Eucharist, how can it be that they are administered unlawfully?
The EO would certainly not say so either!They possess incomplete union with Catholic Church and therefore with God.
And this is precisely the reason why Latin Catholics cannot receive sacraments in the EO Church. From their perspective, it is we who are in schism and have departed from the One True Church.Schismatics never lawfully celebrate the sacraments (except in cases where Ecclesia Supplet would apply), because they are schismatics.
In fact, the reason for which you say that they don’t celebrate theirnSacraments unlawfully is exactly the reason why they do celebrate them unlawfully.
Those who did not initiate the schism cannot be charged with the sin of separation.yet Schism is schism.
The Bishops are obligated to provide the faithful with the sacramental life of the Church. Since their Holy Orders are valid, then it is within their jurisdiction to celebrate them.That does not mean that they celebrate the Sacraments lawfully, or that they have Jurisdiction (which would be required to do so).
I am not sure what you mean by this, but the CC recognizes the jurisdiction of the Eastern Churches.Jurisdiction exists only in the Catholic Church
You will find this characteristic is ubiquitous throughout the posts from that source.It uses a binary position
Ahhh…the higher authority at last!It seems like you believe this to be true because you say it is and you are your own authority.
One must take Ott with a grain of salt.Fundamentals of Catholic Dogma by L. Ott
This is not consistent with what the Catholic Church teaches.Sacraments are validly administered by Orthodox priests but because they lack union with Church they can not fully lawfully administer them- however whether or not it is sin depends on actual will and intent of the one who administers them.
I don’t know where you are getting this “property” concept. Sacraments are avenues of God’s grace, which cannot be “owned” by people. The Church teaches that sacraments are the right of the faithful, so if anyone has “ownership” of them, it would be the recipients!It is however primary property of entire Catholic Church.
Yes, but it does not follow that sacraments which occur outside of full communion are not valid or licit. Otherwise, the CC would not accept Protestant baptism.Extra ecclesiam nulla salus is a dogma- in a sense that every sacrament comes from Church and so does salvation.
This is not consistent with what the CC teaches. Sacraments are not possessions. They rightfully “belong” to those who receive them. EO have rightfully received Holy Orders, and have valid priesthood, and valid sacraments which are validly offered to the faithful.Orthodox are not part of Catholic Church (atleast not fully, I believe you would agree with this) and hence they are not part of community to which sacraments rightfully belong.
There is only One Church, and all who are members of Christ are members of His One Body, the Church. They have received the faith from the Apostles just as we have. They don’t vote at the Councils because of the Schism.They are however not part of Catholic Church…
The Anglican Church is not seen as a “Sister Church” because they do not have apostolic succession therefore they do not have a valid Eucharist.I’m not expert on this, but I also do not quite believe this view is right as it kind of makes Catholic Church just one of many- not The Church that Jesus estabilished, just a Sister Church of Eastern Orthodoxy, Oriental Orthodoxy, Anglican Church etc.
Yes, but most of those who are born into communities that have been separated are not even aware that they are in a state of imperfect unity. And the EO have been taught that it is the Latins who left the One Faith. As with American Catholics, few study the history of the Church.Those who are apart of Christ’s Church by virtue of their baptism can separate themselves from it by schism.
Americans are subject invisibly to Her Majesty the Queen of England by the theory of the Divine Right. King George III did not agree to the demands of the American revolutionaries, who never had the Divine Right. The subjection to Her Majesty the Queen is completely invisible and no one can see it. However, even if you reject Her authority, you are still subject to Her Majesty the Queen of England.guess we weren’t going to get out of that Revolutionary war, were we?
A while back, I read in the newspaper that a local bishop had excommunicated a Roman Catholic who converted to EO.Do you believe that all the EO are “excommunicated”?
Does that mean that there are mistakes in his book? Where are the errors?One must take Ott with a grain of salt.
- Heresy / divisiveness./ schism αἱρετικὸν, & Titus 3:10-11 IOW one who is disposed to form sects, heresies, schisms etc. The consequences? Paul says to Bp Titus, “After admonishing such a person once or twice, have nothing more to do with them, They are perverted, and in serious sin, That person is self condemned.”
- Division / dissension / sedition διχοστασίαι, That same Greek word is used in both the following passages
Rm 16:17-21 & Gal 5:19-21
Why is schism grave (mortal) sin? Note the consequences? (Gal 5:21] “ I warn you, as I warned you before, that those who do such things shall not inherit the kingdom of God. “ IOW one goes to hell when they die in that sin.
Do Anglicans fit the profile for being “in” the Catholic Church? No
I think the more appropriate word wold be “fully”. Obviously they are “in”, just not in perfect unity.
To be “in” the Church therefore, one must be Catholic fully incorporated into the Church.
ANDThe Catechism indicates that there are members of the Body of Christ that are not fully incorporated, so your rendering seems to contradict.
Excommunication was lifted, schism is still in place.Many like to throw the word schism around, yet from EWTN, hile full communion is lacking, the Catholic Church no longer considers these Churches as being in a formal schism or as being excommunicated.”
We all agree that the Catholic Church and the Orthodox are not in full communion but like what has been posted many times, an imperfect communion. The Orthodox have apostolic succession therefore a valid Eucharist.
ZP
steve-b:
yet Schism is schism.guanophore:
That idea is not a permanent get outta jail free card. Given how easy information is to get today on this planet, the CCC points out, ignorance of one’s position must be innocent in order to get that benefit of ignorance.Those who did not initiate the schism cannot be charged with the sin of separation.
HOWEVER
1791 This ignorance can often be imputed to personal responsibility. This is the case when a man “takes little trouble to find out what is true and good, or when conscience is by degrees almost blinded through the habit of committing sin.” In such cases, the person is culpable for the evil he commits.
As in to remain in schism, heresy etc etc, in spite of an avalanche of information available showing such error, and not change, i.e. keep error going…they are culpable
Allow me to askSteve-b: if I understand what you’re saying, since I’ve read this thread and consequently gained knowledge, I as a Lutheran convert to Orthodoxy am fully culpable of schism and unless I unite myself to the Catholic Church will be condemned to hell?