Doesn't Matthew 28:19 prove God is Triune?

[FaithofAbraham]

The Word **became **flesh…where do you read that the Word took an existing flesh? the Word itself became flesh in the womb of Mary…so we have the Word (non-material) becoming material…it is the same Word in a material form.

Where did God get the human body and spirit of Jesus from, did He have a spare one stored up in his cupboard or something?

 

[FaithofAbraham]

You still fail to bring evidence from John 1 that Word had been a different person who was united by human Jesus after His miraculous birth. Jesus’ human body was what the WORD became when the WORD came to our world. You should study a little grammar to see that John uses the same pronoun for the WORD and human JESUS throughout that introductory chapter, emphasizing the fact that they are one and the same PERSON.

So then you say the human PERSON of Jesus always existed as God’s Word and thus God. Which is like the Mormons say, God was always a man.

Besides, John contends that Jesus is MORE than a prophet - even greater than Moses, through whom the Law was given and through whom God spoke to the Pharaoh - when he states that **grace and truth **came through Jesus Christ. According to John, Jesus is not an ordinary prophet that gives testimony to the LIGHT that gives LIFE (this is what John the Baptist is!), but the very LIGHT and LIFE(John 1: 7-12)

But he still gets all his power from God like I quoted several times now. So he is a powerful human and prophet and king and other things, but still a human who gets all he has from God.

The “words” in plural do not refer to the WORD defined in John 1!

Yeah it’s all the same, God’s Word is what God says and wills and commands.

But then of course you may have a prophet with the title of God’s Word which means something slightly different, he speaks the Word of God.
Angelos;3450572:

Yet you do not want to see the fact that Jesus does not say **WE ALL **

are in the Father! He says **THE OTHERS **may be ONE in US. Thus, Jesus overtly separates Himself from the OTHERS! This is because Jesus is fully human and fully divine: He IS GOD.

Peace,
Angelos N.B.

If the Father is part of US and we are all one in that US then of course we are all one in the Father. It’s not any proof Jesus is God.

Look at it this way, Adam was the first man, the partnership at first was Adam in God, God in Adam, then all the rest of us in them.

This new human Adam which is Jesus, same thing. Jesus in God, God in Jesus, then all the rest of us in them.

 

[Angelos]

So then you say the human PERSON of Jesus always existed as God’s Word and thus God. Which is like the Mormons say, God was always a man.

Human Person of Jesus always existed? Nope, I, on the contrary, always say that Jesus’ HUMAN person never existed! Jesus IS a divine person alone, He has NO human personality! This is why I say the WORD and Jesus are the SAME Person. Remember the info I gave you about the Greek equivalent of the word “dwelling” in John: it means Tabernacle. Word comes to our world and takes flesh(Tabernacle) as God of the OT comes and resides in the Tabernacle/Temple.

But he still gets all his power from God like I quoted several times now. So he is a powerful human and prophet and king and other things, but still a human who gets all he has from God…

But this does not mean that the WORD was given Him, He HIMSELF being the same person as the eternal and uncreated WORD!

I also acknowledge that Jesus was fully human, so nothing wrong with His getting many things from God! However, Jesus is the SON, not one of the prophets. As the Son, He says He gets whatever He has from the Father because He is not an independent God or an additional God!

Yeah it’s all the same, God’s Word is what God says and wills and commands.

But then of course you may have a prophet with the title of God’s Word which means something slightly different, he speaks the Word of God.

No way! God’s Word means GOD’s creative WISDOM, not what God says and wills and commands.

None of your assertions are supported by John though. What makes Jesus slightly different - what you mean by this slight difference is another thing I want to know - than Moses? You think the Evangelist’s distinguishing vocabulary had no point or purpose? Why is the title WORD applied to Jesus alone?

If the Father is part of US and we are all one in that US then of course we are all one in the Father. It’s not any proof Jesus is God.

Look at it this way, Adam was the first man, the partnership at first was Adam in God, God in Adam, then all the rest of us in them.

This new human Adam which is Jesus, same thing. Jesus in God, God in Jesus, then all the rest of us in them.

Where does Adam say “ALL will be one in US?” Where does Adam say that “I am the WAY, TRUTH, and LIFE”? Where does Adam say "One who sees ME has seen God?

Jesus deliberately says WE and THEY. Our being IN God WITH Adam is not the same as being in GOD and Jesus! Humans IN Jesus as well as IN GOD: Jesus is GOD.

Peace,
Angelos N.B.

 

[Rocky]

As a Catholic professing belief in One God, revealed to us as three divine Persons, I am not saying that God the Father is a man, nor that the Holy Spirit is a man-- although I do believe that the Second Person of the Trinity took on human flesh, did become man and even today remains man in His glorified, resurrected Body.

Saying that God the Father is the First Person of the Trinity, and that the Holy Spirit is the Third Person is saying that God’s relationship is personal— not distant and aloof! We can only know this by God’s own revelation of Himself.