Whatever kind of a statement is that???
Of course ‘gay sex’ is wrong because God forbids it.
Aah… but you changed Prodigal’s statement, and thus, it seems, you’re misunderstanding it.
In the Mosaic covenant, there were certain dietary restrictions: for example, shellfish were prohibited. Is the prohibition against shellfish something that follows from natural law? No, of course not. The prescriptions of natural law hold for all people in all times and places, but the prohibition against shellfish only hold for Jews under the Mosaic covenant.
So, if you wanted to prove that it is ‘immoral’ to eat shellfish, then you could
only go to Scripture. If you asked the question, “does this hold for all people, in all circumstances, in all times and places?”, the answer would, clearly, be ‘no’. So, if you were trying to prove the need to abstain from shellfish (to a Jewish person), and that person made the claim that the Scriptures don’t say what you claim they say, then you would have no ability to convince them: after all, the prohibition exists ‘merely’ in Scripture, and nowhere else. (Now, they’d be
objectively wrong in their assertion, but that’s not the point being made here: the point is whether and how we might offer a convincing argument. In this case, the only possible argument is Scriptural.)
Yet, this isn’t the best example – after all, the prohibition against shellfish only applies to Jews under the Mosaic covenant. Is there another example we can use? One that applies to all, and is present in Scripture but not in natural law? Absolutely! Ask yourself the question, “is it moral to murder an innocent person?” The answer is that, in all times and places and cultures, it is always immoral to murder an innocent. In other words, it is part of the natural law – which God has written into our hearts – that murder is immoral. So, if we encounter a person who denies the authority of Scripture (which, granted, is in error – but that’s not the point in this discussion!), then we still are able to defend the notion that murder is immoral and harmful to those who practice it.
Prodigal’s approach has the potential to be fruitful: for those who deny Scriptural arguments, an argument from natural law may be effective.
Yet, what about his assertion that it is ‘heretical’ to suggest that we must rely on Scripture for an understanding of the natural law? Personally, I think that ‘heretical’ is a bit strong of a word to use. However, the intent is solid.
Can Revelation be used in order to understand the natural law? Of course (cf. CCC 1960: “In the present situation sinful man needs grace and revelation so moral and religious truths may be known ‘by everyone with facility, with firm certainty and with no admixture of error.’ The natural law provides revealed law and grace with a foundation prepared by God and in accordance with the work of the Spirit.”).
Must recourse to Revelation be made in order to know the Natural Law? No! (Quoting Aquinas, CCC 1955 tells us, "The natural law is nothing other than the light of understanding placed in us by God; through it we know what we must do and what we must avoid. God has given this light or law at the creation.)
Therefore, it is clear that we can make recourse to
other principles, outside Scripture, in order to prove our point, vis-a-vis God’s plan for human sexuality.
Of course ‘gay sex’ is wrong because God forbids it. If HE didn’t forbit it, it wouldn’t be against “Natural Law”.
To be fair, Prodigal is saying that homosexual activity is wrong not just because
God forbids it in Scripture.
He gaves us Natural Law and Scripture to back it up.
Agreed. Yet, even if we can’t make recourse to Scripture – because, in this case, the presumption is that we’re talking to people who reject the authority or particular interpretation of Scripture on this matter – then we can certainly make recourse to natural law.
Fair enough?