Hey, Robert.
I think we’re pretty much talking about the same thing. What exactly is revelation? I would describe it as God’s word given to man. You said that the Pope is guided by the Holy Ghost. Is that not direction from God? If the RCC has experienced a development of doctrine over the years, I doubt you would say that that was due solely to the reasoning of smart men, but rather that they were inspired to see such things the way they did. Is that not revelation? Maybe you don’t believe in anything as being equal in authority with the Bible, but from all I can tell, Catholics definitely believe in modern revelation on a world-wide scale. Would you disagree to that?
The deposit of faith was fixed by Christ and His apostles. (Nothing the Apostles taught was new doctrine, it was what was taught to them by Christ, so even after Christ’s death although there was a revealing of doctrine, it was Christ’s revelation to the Apostles that was taught.
Right, so why has that stopped?
With ongoing revelation there is the possibility of change. The best example from your church history is the doctrine concerning plural marriage. First, it was understood by the early mormon church that plural marriage was not just allowed, but mandatory for salvation. But by the late 1800s new revelation declared multiple wives to be wrong and improper. It this evidence of a consistent God or an inconsistent God?
What you may see one way I see another. Really, the concept of plural marriage never changed. In the Book of Mormon where the practice is condemned, it allows an exception (Jacob 2:30). Basically, to use this against the LDS is to use it against all of Christianity and even Judaism. For a long time in the Old Testament plural marriage was perfectly acceptable. Then, things changed, and it was outlawed. If we apply your stated criteria there then the God of the Old Testament was also a changing God. However, that’s not the case, obviously. How would you justify that occurence in the Bible?
One other thought that I would interject into our discussion - there is no historical evidence supporting the “Great Apostasy”
Neither is there any evidence fully supporting that there was no great apostasy. It’s a matter of faith either way you look at it. There’s a good book called “Restoring the Ancient Church:
Joseph Smith and Early Christianity” by Barry Bickmore that compares the LDS Church to early Christianity and takes a brief look at evidences of the apostasy. You can read it free online
here. There are evidences for the apostasy in many forms, which seem pretty convincing to me, but I wouldn’t be surprised if you remained unmoved by it, as I would probably not be very convinced by your arguments either. I’ve argued the apostasy before and realized that there’s not enough evidence either way and that it basically comes down to opinion. You could give me your links and I could give you mine, but the most that would happen is that we would learn more about each others’ perspectives. That’s all.
I would recommend you check out the current end of the thread "
Question " in the Apologetics section.
This is a good example of what I was referring to in my prior post as a fundamental problem with the LDS belief system. Here, you simply assume that the “great apostasy” happened and thus, there was a need for a restoration.
Don’t you
assume that the great apostasy didn’t happen and thus, there was no need for a restoration?
Doesn’t this contradict Christ’s promise to Peter that the gates of Hell would never prevail against the Church. (Mt. 16:18.) For the restoration to be necessary, the “gates of Hell” must have prevailed over the Church for about 1800 years, right?
It depends what you think that statement means. It has several other possible interpretations than the one you apply there. For example, the Church is made up of the humble followers of Christ. You should remember that “apostasy” doesn’t actually mean that the Church was torn down from outside, but rather it was all due to rebellion from within. Would the Church still be the Church if there were no more Christians in it? Another option, very famous among Mormons, as Hugh Nibley theorized for a long time, is the interpretation that this refers rather to the underworld literally, and that death would not overcome the valiant saints in the end. This also can have a great significance and insight into the work for the dead.