Fate of Eastern Catholic Churches if Orthodox are Reconciled

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Actually I do see a difference, my original was broader and allows you to include things that are considered heresy which they did not deal with, while the latter only includes that which is dogma.

Ok, so what is heresy that they didn’t touch? Since you clearly don’t know any dogma that they didn’t teach.
 
John VIII wrote:

Then I don’t know why you said this:

Originally Posted by Vico forums.catholic-questions.org/images/buttons_khaki/viewpost.gif
The unforgivable sin:

(NAB 1986) Matt 12:31-32:
Therefore, I say to you, every sin and blasphemy will be forgiven people, but blasphemy against the Spirit * will not be forgiven. And whoever speaks a word against the Son of Man will be forgiven; but whoever speaks against the holy Spirit will not be forgiven, either in this age or in the age to come.


** Blasphemy against the Spirit: the sin of attributing to Satan what is the work of the Spirit of God.*

In response to: “It is not a given that heresy is ALWAYS the worst sin.”

Sorry I did not explain.
 
…So these legalistic points are all “essential”? This is ‘strictness’, that is using laws to legally invalidate the grace of a Sacrament. Most of these ‘essential’ laws didn’t even exist prior to Trent. If a new council of the Church was held and set down laws essential to baptism then you could use those laws to annul baptisms as well! Then such a one would then have the legal right to be baptized again (because legally the baptism never happened in the first place). Don’t tell me there is a difference between Baptism & Marriage because you can only be baptized once, because how many times can you be married? (The answer is once!)

…So all I’m saying is that annulments are a legal accommodation that allows the Sacrament to be repeated. According to a law the Sacrament never happened, but according to grace the Sacrament happened twice. An annulment avoids the braking of a law, whereas Economy is used to provide an exception to a law. Both ways deal with ‘law’, neither way deals with grace.

I understand what you are saying and that you believe it, but I think it is incorrect to say that anullment is “using laws to legally invalidate the grace of a Sacrament”.

There is no grace of Matrimony between the baptised if it is not contracted correctly. If an anullment occurs, for the baptised, it is understood that no grace was received. Similary retroactively convalidated marriages are presumed sacramental from the grant not from the celebration.

It is true that the laws of the Catholic Church have changed through the centuries regarding marriage, yet it is an essential that matrimony be approved by the Church, which allows for the Church to enforce or dispense non-essential elements. If this were not so then marriages attempted by Catholics, without Church approval, would not be called non-existant. The form of marriage may be dispensed, but having approval of the Church cannot because it is essential.
 
I would define a heretic as one who is error and refuses correction, maybe you Catholics have a different definition, normally I’d be accepting of this, but since Steve was intent on using Catholic definitions and applying them to Orthodoxy, I’m not going to be. I’m reading a Catholic document as an Orthodox and it says Eastern Catholics are heretics, and since Steve’s logic does not include provision for alternate definitions, either does mine.
The site does not say that Eastern Catholics heretics. You may like to define “reject” or “heresy” however you like, but that has no bearing on the usage by the authors of the cited article. You may find that to be a clever way of arguing with Steve. But the reality is that you are posting information that is untrue to a wide audience. There is no merit in that.
He may have been representing the contents of the site appropriately, but he was misrepresenting the importance of the sites
Well I am not objecting to that argument that you have with Steve. My argument is that you are presenting contents of sites inappropriately. I am happy that you admit that Steve is appropriate in his repesentations and do not make that claim for your posts,
Yes, I’d love it if Catholics would stop doing the same to Orthodox. Most of the Orthodox here don’t try to tell Catholics what their writings mean, but are simply trying to clarify it. Most of the Catholics are the same. I would also appreciate what you mean by “neo-Orthodox”?
I disagree with your characterization of what most Orthodox try to do here. How much of the EO arguments over the “filioque” here hinge on them telling Catholics what Catholics. And purgatory. And …

“neo” prefix combining form for “new”. The truth is that there is much posting here by people who are very new to Orthodoxy and who have a very limited, and often largely inorganic, sense of Orthodoxy, coupled with a gross lack of knowledge of its history.
Apparently the word games have begun because I went back over what I wrote and I can’t see a distinction in the meaning between “deal with” and “backing of” as applied to the context, so instead of arguing semantics with you I’m going to tell you to correct me on whatever semantic whatever you interpreted the original post as meaning so I can figure out what you’re on about.
Apparently you reconsider this remark in your next post.
 
Actually I do see a difference, my original was broader and allows you to include things that are considered heresy which they did not deal with, while the latter only includes that which is dogma.

Ok, so what is heresy that they didn’t touch? Since you clearly don’t know any dogma that they didn’t teach.
confused::confused:
The problem I saw in your remark, as I *tentatively *understand it, is not about heresy that they didn’t touch - although that would be an interesting conversation: many EO’s condemn as heresy things that have never been established as such by an ecumenical council.

I was more concerned about truths that were never brought before a council because they were never contested. If you go to Vigil tonight, much of what you hear has never been adjudicated by a council, but it is the teaching of the Church. I don’t think that - outside the internet - there are many who would consider such teachings as a matter of opinion.
 
To start,

Thanks dvdjs for your help and balance in this discussion.
I would define a heretic as one who is error and refuses correction, maybe you Catholics have a different definition, normally I’d be accepting of this, but since Steve was intent on using Catholic definitions and applying them to Orthodoxy, I’m not going to be. I’m reading a Catholic document as an Orthodox and it says Eastern Catholics are heretics, and since Steve’s logic does not include provision for alternate definitions, either does mine.
  • The article does NOT say Eastern Catholics are heretics. That’s YOUR doing.
  • Definitions help communication. Catholics like defining things because it makes communications precise, AND understanding follows.
  • Heresy according to the Catechisn is defined as **2089 **"the obstinate post-baptismal denial of some truth which must be believed with divine and catholic faith, or it is likewise an obstinate doubt concerning the same;
NT:
He may have been representing the contents of the site appropriately, but he was misrepresenting the importance of the sites,
I made no claims about the sites I quoted. As you noted, I didn’t misquote, misrepresent, misdirect, misuse, mischarachterize any quote from any site I used. And I posted the site so you didn’t have to hunt for the source.

Re: the importance of ANY EO site, How many times did I say “no ONE speaks for EO”?

http://forums.catholic-questions.org/showpost.php?p=6936402&postcount=290
http://forums.catholic-questions.org/showpost.php?p=6929780&postcount=275

Therefore, since the RO are the largest body of EO by far, and they teach toll houses, doesn’t that suggest to you, in order for YOU to tell the RO they are wrong, you need to provide an EO source(s) that speaks for all EO that says the RO are wrong.

It’s clear, no ONE and no document like the CCC, has the authority to speak for EO or you would have presented it by now… It’s also clear, you’re not one church.

This plays into Cardinal Kaspers statement made in Mar of 2002 that follows.
NT:
Yes, I’d love it if Catholics would stop doing the same to Orthodox. Most of the Orthodox here don’t try to tell Catholics what their writings mean, but are simply trying to clarify it.
You’re being cross examined just like you do with Catholics. Did you think this was merely a monologue where you get to accuse without being challenged?

Cardinal Kasper who heads the ecumenical efforts for the CC, says,
  • “We are increasingly conscious of the fact that an Orthodox Church (EO Church) does not really exist,”
  • "At the present stage, it does not seem that Constantinople is yet capable of integrating the different autocephalous Orthodox Churches;
  • there are doubts about its primacy of honor, especially in Moscow."
zenit.org/article-3885?l=

apparantly there has been much progress with the see of Antioch :cool:
NT:
Apparently the word games have begun because I went back over what I wrote and I can’t see a distinction in the meaning between “deal with” and “backing of” as applied to the context, so instead of arguing semantics with you I’m going to tell you to correct me on whatever semantic whatever you interpreted the original post as meaning so I can figure out what you’re on about.
You took a paragraph from an article, rewrote it to say something opposite, and called it a quote. Is that what you call word games? I think an apology is in order.
 
It is true that the laws of the Catholic Church have changed through the centuries regarding marriage, yet it is an essential that matrimony be approved by the Church, which allows for the Church to enforce or dispense non-essential elements. If this were not so then marriages attempted by Catholics, without Church approval, would not be called non-existant. The form of marriage may be dispensed, but having approval of the Church cannot because it is essential.
I do agree with what you say in principle, but if marriages MUST have the approval of the Church then all other Sacrament do likewise as well. Why isn’t there an approved list of popes. Why isn’t there an approved list of Ecumenical Councils? Hardly anything has a list of essentials that have been approved so that these essentials may be gone over with a fine tooth come in order to find some obscure point to be able to call it invalid. I do not doubt that the Church has the authority to set laws & the authority over the Sacramental grace as well as this is the power of the one who holds the Keys; but I look at what the Church is doing very carefully and I conclude that the Church is not exercising it’s authority over the Sacraments, only over the legal authority to perform those sacraments. Great lengths are taken to see if laws the Church set up were perfectly followed but nothing is done to determine if there was grace in the Sacrament, that is unless it is assumed that observance of laws control the grace of the Sacrament. Laws were nailed to the Cross, the Cross was not nailed to the Laws. A law that comes after can not invalidate the grace that has come before. Why do they depose a priest? Could they not just find some point of essential law that was overlooked an his ordination and declare that he never was a priest in the first place? Of course they could, but they don’t! Only in marriage do they us strictness; and there must be a reason why, and I think that reason is one and the same reason the Eastern Churches come to the same end using economy to get there. Simply put, everyone deserves a second chance!

The relevance to this thread is that the EO upon reunion will continue their use of economy and even ‘Church Divorce’ as is their right, but the EC, unless something is changed, will have to continue the Latin rule that there can be no such thing as ‘Church Divorce’. The EO & EC will continue to be two separate churches even after union with Rome unless this issue can be understood by all and either way respected by all as proper church rule and therefore not something that should cause division.
 
The site does not say that Eastern Catholics heretics. You may like to define “reject” or “heresy” however you like, but that has no bearing on the usage by the authors of the cited article. You may find that to be a clever way of arguing with Steve. But the reality is that you are posting information that is untrue to a wide audience. There is no merit in that.

Well I am not objecting to that argument that you have with Steve. My argument is that you are presenting contents of sites inappropriately. I am happy that you admit that Steve is appropriate in his repesentations and do not make that claim for your posts,
Of course I was presenting sites inappropriately, as was Steve, that was my argument.
I disagree with your characterization of what most Orthodox try to do here. How much of the EO arguments over the “filioque” here hinge on them telling Catholics what Catholics. And purgatory. And …
Most Orthodox arguments on that topic has been trying to figure out what Catholics actually believe on it, between different responses from different individuals, and language trying to describe it that certainly doesn’t appear that it was designed to be read by laity this is quite impossible, which is why I generally avoid arguments on that subject now.
“neo” prefix combining form for “new”. The truth is that there is much posting here by people who are very new to Orthodoxy and who have a very limited, and often largely inorganic, sense of Orthodoxy, coupled with a gross lack of knowledge of its history.
I’m aware of what neo means, however it wasn’t clear from the context how you were using it. Thank you for answering that.
Apparently you reconsider this remark in your next post.
Reconsider is the wrong word. Found a semantic distinction. It is still semantics, and I had nothing nefarious in mind with the difference in wording.
 
confused::confused:
The problem I saw in your remark, as I *tentatively *understand it, is not about heresy that they didn’t touch - although that would be an interesting conversation: many EO’s condemn as heresy things that have never been established as such by an ecumenical council.

I was more concerned about truths that were never brought before a council because they were never contested. If you go to Vigil tonight, much of what you hear has never been adjudicated by a council, but it is the teaching of the Church. I don’t think that - outside the internet - there are many who would consider such teachings as a matter of opinion.
Do you have particular examples?

They prayers themselves haven’t gone before Council, but prayers are neither doctrine or dogma, The service itself has many parts though, I’m not sure what part you mean.

edit: Rereading what I said, I’m looking specifically for dogma, that which must be believed, that was not in council. As a Catholic member pointed out (Vico?) doctrine is simply what is taught, as opposed to dogma, what must be believed.
 
To start,

Thanks dvdjs for your help and balance in this discussion.
My argument is completely against your arguments, you’ll notice he has refused to get behind you on your argument, of course he has also refused to speak against your arguments.
  • The article does NOT say Eastern Catholics are heretics. That’s YOUR doing.
  • Definitions help communication. Catholics like defining things because it makes communications precise, AND understanding follows.
  • Heresy according to the Catechisn is defined as **2089 **"the obstinate post-baptismal denial of some truth which must be believed with divine and catholic faith, or it is likewise an obstinate doubt concerning the same;
That’s great, but you’re superimposing Catholic definitions on Orthodoxy, since you find it unfair to have non-Catholic definitions placed on Catholicism, you are guilty of having double standards.
I made no claims about the sites I quoted. As you noted, I didn’t misquote, misrepresent, misdirect, misuse, mischarachterize any quote from any site I used. And I posted the site so you didn’t have to hunt for the source.
You did, you claimed them as a point of authority against Orthodox. You most certainly misrepresented the sites, and mis-characterized Orthodoxy.
Except that’s not entirely true either, and seems to contradict your entire argument here, which is that All Orthodox believe in Toll Houses as dogma because orthodoxinfo says so.
Therefore, since the RO are the largest body of EO by far, and they teach toll houses, doesn’t that suggest to you, in order for YOU to tell the RO they are wrong, you need to provide an EO source(s) that speaks for all EO that says the RO are wrong.
First off, in order for that to be a valid argument you’d have to find a source that speaks for all “RO” (MP is the proper abbreviation). Second you’re creating a strawman, no one has ever claimed it isn’t a teaching in the church. What is denied is that it has official standing.
It’s clear, no ONE and no document like the CCC, has the authority to speak for EO or you would have presented it by now… It’s also clear, you’re not one church.
The Orthodox Church is many Churches which make up the One Church, as it has always been. We have never claimed otherwise. Congrats on figuring that out.
You’re being cross examined just like you do with Catholics. Did you think this was merely a monologue where you get to accuse without being challenged?
I’m sorry, what? First off what does that have to do with what you quoted, second I have never indicated a belief that this is a monologue, and finally I have not acquiesced to being cross examined, I was under the impression this was to be a civil discussion, of course your dishonesty put an end to that.
Cardinal Kasper who heads the ecumenical efforts for the CC, says,
  • “We are increasingly conscious of the fact that an Orthodox Church (EO Church) does not really exist,”
  • "At the present stage, it does not seem that Constantinople is yet capable of integrating the different autocephalous Orthodox Churches;
  • there are doubts about its primacy of honor, especially in Moscow."
zenit.org/article-3885?l=

And this is why I have so little faith in reunion, you look at us as though we want to be built on your model. Constantinople will never integrate all the autocephalous churches because that is not something it is meant to do. The communion does not want it.
apparantly there has been much progress with the see of Antioch :cool:
Why? Have they agreed to be integrated into Constantinople, or is that suddenly not necessary?
You took a paragraph from an article, rewrote it to say something opposite, and called it a quote. Is that what you call word games? I think an apology is in order.
No I didn’t, the only quote I gave was exactly what it says. My claim was a paraphrase, but when asked to present a quote I presented an exact quote.

Somehow I don’t see it happening that one as dishonest as you will get an apology from me for presenting an argument specifically to show you have been dishonest. I made that argument fully admitting I was being dishonest, using your logic. So if you want an apology for openly using your logic, I suggest you think about what you’re asking for and act accordingly.

Anyway, this conversation can go no further, you refuse to argue honestly and will not suffer correction.
 
Of course I was presenting sites inappropriately, as was Steve, that was my argument.
Yents and it was unconvincingly weak because, in marked contrast to Steve, you factually misrepresented the contents of the website cited.
Most Orthodox arguments on that topic has been trying to figure out what Catholics actually believe on it, between different responses from different individuals, and language trying to describe it that certainly doesn’t appear that it was designed to be read by laity this is quite impossible, which is why I generally avoid arguments on that subject now.
I disagree with your characterization of the Orthodox arguments. There is resistance to clarification, and a pattern of creating meanings that are can then be proclaimed as heretical - just btw what you were doing.
Reconsider is the wrong word. Found a semantic distinction. It is still semantics, and I had nothing nefarious in mind with the difference in wording
I didn’t think that you did. I just didn’t want to give examples, only to discover that you meant something other than I was reading into your sentence.
 
Do you have particular examples?

They prayers themselves haven’t gone before Council, but prayers are neither doctrine or dogma, The service itself has many parts though, I’m not sure what part you mean.

edit: Rereading what I said, I’m looking specifically for dogma, that which must be believed, that was not in council.
I disagree. What the church proclaims in its prayers, its hymns, stichera, irmoi, are matters to be believed. And - apart from what is traditionally heard as metaphor or symbol or analogy etc. - believed without reserve. I have never heard any Eastern priest of bishop - Catholic or Orthodox - suggest anything to the contrary.

I have heard this sort of idea on the net from recent converts still uneasy certain teachings, eg, Mary as the Mother of God. I am not sure if a council ever proclaimed Mary as Mother of God (distinct from Theotokos); perhaps that phrase was used in prayer at a council (that may be sufficient “backing”, but it is not “dealing with”). The idea, however, that that is just some “opinion”, or something that one has a legitimate option to refuse - no way. In real (non-virtual) life, right-believing people are* immersed* in the life developed for them by the church. They are not involved in some arms-length calculation of what must be believed.

The danger of this private judgment, in my opinion, is not so much related to a feared toll house theological quiz that one must pass to avoid damnation; it is rather related to the estrangement from the church that can stem from such cafeteria style belief. If you decide - for yourself - that this or that is optional, then where will you stop? And what confidence will you have in the rest, given that you have refused other teachings?
 
I have heard this sort of idea on the net from recent converts still uneasy certain teachings, eg, Mary as the Mother of God. I am not sure if a council ever proclaimed Mary as Mother of God (distinct from Theotokos);
Theotokos is enough! It necessarily implies “Mother of God”.

The Nestorians could not accept this statement or formulation, because they were separating the two natures of Christ, as if that could be done in one Person. It was at the first council at Ephesus in 431, and then again at Chalcedon in 451, when this dogma was declared.

Jesus is God. Mary is His mother. Therefore, Mary is the Mother of God. All orthodox (little-o) Christians will agree with this.

Lord Have Mercy!
 
I do agree with what you say in principle, but if marriages MUST have the approval of the Church then all other Sacrament do likewise as well. …

Great lengths are taken to see if laws the Church set up were perfectly followed but nothing is done to determine if there was grace in the Sacrament, that is unless it is assumed that observance of laws control the grace of the Sacrament. …

Only in marriage do they us strictness; and there must be a reason why, and I think that reason is one and the same reason the Eastern Churches come to the same end using economy to get there. …

The EO & EC will continue to be two separate churches even after union with Rome unless this issue can be understood by all and either way respected by all as proper church rule and therefore not something that should cause division.
Divine laws determine reception of the grace of a sacrament, the proper disposition must be provided by the faithful, and the proper form observed.

I observe that strictness is used in every sacrament, as a minister of the Church must administer them and must have the intention of doing what the sacrament is supposed to do, or the sacrament is invalid, and except for baptism itself, the faithful must be validly baptised and:

Baptism is not valid unless the correct words are used, so it may be null. Yet there are valid extraordinary forms of baptism: of desire and of blood.

Penance (for serious sins)
Validity: must have words of absolution of priest, or perfect contrition if private.
Grace: for the sacrament to bring grace with absolution there must be at least imperfect contrition supplied by the faithful.

For the following five, proper dispositon is having no unabsolved serious sins, otherwise it is sacrilege to receive tham.

Chrismation
Validity: the oil from the bishop is used administered by valid presbyter.
Grace: the person must have correct disposition to receive the sacramental grace.

Eucharist
Validity: is not valid unless confected correctly by valid presbyter.
Grace: for the sacrament to bring grace there must correct disposition supplied by the faithful.

Matrimony
Validity: proper consent, approved form by Church.
Grace: for the sacrament to bring grace there must correct disposition supplied by the faithful, and both are baptised.

Anointing of the Sick
Validity: administered by valid presbyter with oil of bishop or priest.
Grace: for the sacrament to bring grace there must correct disposition supplied by the faithful.

Holy Orders
Validity: a valid bishop must convey this. (Someone validly ordained can, for grave reasons, be discharged from the obligations and functions linked to ordination.)
Grace: for the sacrament to bring grace there must correct disposition supplied by the faithful.

I have not seen any indication from any Catholic bishop that Eastern Catholic churches will ever be disbanded, even if full communion with Orthodoxy is achieved. This may be a blocking issue, since the Patriarch of Moscow indicated, the issue of the Eastern Churches (in Orthodox jurisdiction) will have to be resolved first, before issues of faith are resolved.
 
Dear [user]Vico[/user]:

I made notes of what you said so I can better get a handle on how the Latin Church views what makes a Sacrament valid/grace-filled. However, I ussure you that the EO do not see it this way at all. And I’m sure that after re-union the East will still hold a differing view of how a Sacrament has the grace of the Holy Spirit. In short there is no ‘formula’ in EO that makes a Sacrament grace-filled. But the essence of both East & west is the same. Namely that both East & West believe the Church has the authority to say what is true & not true Sacraments. Just as an example, Mormon baptism quolifies as valid baptism under the rules for what makes baptism valid according to you list for the RC Church, yet I know that Rome doesn’t accept Mormon baptism. So the Church may teach that A,B,C will make something valid and yet still make an exception to that because the bottom line is that that which is valid is whatever the Church says is valid. By the way the very first baptism I ever had was a Mormon baptism and I go against the rules and teachings of both EO & RC and believe that God recognized that baptism as the ‘one’ baptism that was sacramental for me.
…since the Patriarch of Moscow indicated, the issue of the Eastern Churches (in Orthodox jurisdiction) will have to be resolved first, before issues of faith are resolved.
The PofM will soften his view on this real soon. A resolution is at hand.
 
Matrimony
Validity: proper consent, approved form by Church.
.
What is the proper consent for marriage these days? How do you know that there has not been a defect of consent? There have been thousands of marriage annulments, granted years after the ceremony has taken place, where they claim some defect in consent.
 
Dear [user]Vico[/user]:

I made notes of what you said so I can better get a handle on how the Latin Church views what makes a Sacrament valid/grace-filled. However, I ussure you that the EO do not see it this way at all. And I’m sure that after re-union the East will still hold a differing view of how a Sacrament has the grace of the Holy Spirit. In short there is no ‘formula’ in EO that makes a Sacrament grace-filled. But the essence of both East & west is the same. Namely that both East & West believe the Church has the authority to say what is true & not true Sacraments. Just as an example, Mormon baptism quolifies as valid baptism under the rules for what makes baptism valid according to you list for the RC Church, yet I know that Rome doesn’t accept Mormon baptism. So the Church may teach that A,B,C will make something valid and yet still make an exception to that because the bottom line is that that which is valid is whatever the Church says is valid. By the way the very first baptism I ever had was a Mormon baptism and I go against the rules and teachings of both EO & RC and believe that God recognized that baptism as the ‘one’ baptism that was sacramental for me.

The PofM will soften his view on this real soon. A resolution is at hand.
I do hope there is some sort of resolution on the Eastern Catholic jurisdiction problems soon.

Interesting that you mention valid baptism, because the reason the Mormon baptism is not valid to EO & RC is that the concept of Trinity is different than that of Mormonism and the baptism itself is not a Christian baptism. I have studied the issue of Mormon baptism.

The Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit, according to the Church of Jesus Christ of Latter-day Saints*,* are not the three persons in which subsists the one Godhead, but three gods who form one divinity. This is an essential element of disagreement with the Nicene Creed and the Ecumenical Councils. Also the intention of the Church of Jesus Christ of Latter-day Saints, is to give Baptism which originated not in Christ but already at the beginning of creation (see the Articles of Faith), so it is not a Christian Baptism.

The Orthodox East teaches that each sacramental act is a prayer of the entire ecclesiastical community, led by the bishop or his representative, and also a response of God, based upon Christ’s promise to send the Holy Spirit upon the church. The Holy Spirit is given to free men and calls for their responses. The participation of men in God is effected through their cooperation.

So one confesses regularly in Orthodoxy, and before receiving any of the Mysteries other than baptism or confession. So one would make confession before Communion, Chrismation (if received by economy), Holy Unction, Holy Ordination or tonsure, and Crowning.

Particularly, in Russia confessions are a standard practice that is generally required before communion. (I know this varies with the various Orthodox Churches, however the idea is the same, to receive the Holy Spirit one must be rightly disposed, which is the element of cooperation. This idea is common to Catholicism and Orthodoxy.)

Orthodox remarriage after divorce is tolerated based on the possibility that the sacrament was not originally received properly for it to be effective, so remarriage can be tolerated. This is equivalent to the Catholic practice of declaring a marriage null, because if it was not contracted correctly, then it was not sacramental. You can see here the idea of the Catholic Church to make things specific and codified (a.k.a. legalism) yet the other element, Divine law, is in the dogmas of the faith.
 
What is the proper consent for marriage these days? How do you know that there has not been a defect of consent? There have been thousands of marriage annulments, granted years after the ceremony has taken place, where they claim some defect in consent.
Marriages are presumed to be valid until show to be otherwise, so one is never completely certain that it could not be anulled (until death that is), or for the baptised, that it is a sacrament. (We cannot read minds.)

The object of marital consent, the self-gift of the spouses, has the following three essential elements: exclusivity, permanence, and granting the natural conjugal act apt to the creation of children (it is not necessary to be fertile).

The consent must truthfully be given freely by the man and woman, both capable of granting the object, with understanding of what the marriage covenant is, without fraud or misrepresentation of identity, and fulfilling any current conditions to consent.

Some examples that would invalidate a marriage consent: one or other spouse intends to not be exclusive, or intends the marriage to be temporary, or intends to not grant conjugal rights.

These are the grounds for anullment from the Latin canon law (CIC):

Lack of Sufficient Use of Reason (canon 1095, 1°)
Grave Defect of Discretion of Judgment (canon 1095, 2°)
Inability to Assume the Essential Obligations of Marriage (canon 1095, 3°)
Ignorance of marriage object or subject (canon 1096)
Error Concerning the Person (identity) (canon 1097, §1)
Error Concerning a Quality of the Person (canon 1097, §2)
Fraud or Imposed Error (canon 1098)
Error Concerning the Unity or Indissolubility of Marriage (Error of Law or Determining Error) (canon 1099)
Error Concerning the Sacramental Dignity of Marriage (Error of Law or Determining Error) (canon 1099)
Total Simulation of Marriage (canon 1101)
Partial Simulation of Marriage (canon 1101)
Conditional Consent – Future Condition (canon 1101, §1)
Conditional Consent – Past and Present Condition (canon 1101, §2)
Force or Grave Fear (canon 1103)
Invalid Convalidation of Marriage (canons 1156-1165)
 
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