First Cause

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There is:Mind precedes all conditions,
mind is their chief, they are mind-made.
If you speak or act with an evil mind then suffering will follow you,
as the wheel follows the draught ox.

Mind precedes all conditions,
mind is their chief, they are mind-made.
If you speak or act with a pure mind then happiness will follow you,
as a shadow that never leaves.

Dhammapada 1:1-2
It’s refreshing to know Buddhists believe “Mind precedes all conditions” and
“mind is their chief”. At least you agree with other religions that spiritual causality and spiritual values are the most significant facts of life. The main divergence is on the origin of our existence - and on that we can agree to disagree! 🙂
 
Causes are contingent on effects if they are to be actual causes.
Context is very important. What do you mean by contingent. It what sense are you using the word?

If you intend to mean that the cause is timeless and eternal, has forever caused the effect, and thus has always been a cause and would never have been a cause otherwise, then that is correct. But that doesn’t tell us about whether on not an entity could exist had it not produced its effect; it just means that it wouldn’t be defined as a cause had it not created the effect. We know there is a first cause because there is an effect. Thus we can say that the two concepts or ideas - cause and effect - are logically contingent upon each other for their meaning, but you haven’t shown by this fact that the effect is the ontological source of “existence”.

If you mean that the cause is ontologically contingent on the effect in the sense that the effect is the existential source of the cause, then that is obviously false; otherwise we are not really talking about an effect. It would be meaningless. When we say that the effect is contingent upon the cause, we are are saying that some entity is the ontological source of the effect. This says nothing about whether or not the entity must necessarily be a cause; it only means that it is a cause because the effect exists.

However, the effect is something that the first cause eternally actualises because it is in the nature of the first cause to produce effects. The universe has a temporal beginning, but ontologically speaking it has always existed as an effect of the first cause. Thus you would have a point if what you mean is that because it is in the nature of the first cause to produce effects it is impossible to consider a reality where only God existed. If you are saying that the universe is eternal in this sense, then that I would agree with, since if Christians consider God to be perfect and that God created the universe, then we must also admit that it is perfect for God to create; and thus it is a perfect expression of Gods nature to share his existence. Therefore it is something we must believe that God would do in all possible worlds or versions of reality. Because it is a perfect expression, the creation is not something that takes place in time. Instead we must think of the effect and the cause existing together simultaneously and eternally.

Is that what you mean?
 
Causes are contingent on effects if they are to be actual causes. …
Your parents are actual and they are not contingent on you as you have admitted. Therefore causes are not contingent on effects as you claim.
 
Your parents are actual and they are not contingent on you as you have admitted.
My parents are now actual. They were not my parents before I was conceived. Two human beings existed but at that time they were not my parents. The description “parents” is contingent.

There are rules for being a parent, and having a child is one of those rules. If you don’t follow the rules then you cannot legitimately be called “parent”.

Can you show me a two year old actual parent?

rossum
 
What do you mean by contingent. It what sense are you using the word?
I mean “dependent on something else”. Being an actual cause is dependent on having caused some effect or other. A thing which has never caused any effect cannot properly be described as a cause.
it just means that it wouldn’t be defined as a cause had it not created the effect.
That is what I am saying. The description “cause” cannot be applied to everything, only to things that have had an effect.
We know there is a first cause because there is an effect.
There is no “cause” before there is an effect. The two labels can only be applied simultaneously. See Nagarjuna’s Mulamadhyamakakarika, Chapter One for more details.
Thus we can say that the two concepts or ideas - cause and effect - are logically contingent upon each other for their meaning, but you haven’t shown by this fact that the effect is the ontological source of “existence”.
For the purposes of this argument I am not talking about the existence of something. I am talking about the applicability of particular labels to things.

My parents both existed before I was conceived. However at that time it would have been incorrect to describe them as parents. Since I am their eldest child, before me they were not parents. At most they were potential parents.
However, the effect is something that the first cause eternally actualises because it is in the nature of the first cause to produce effects.
However, before that effect is actually produced, the cause is only a potential cause, not an actual cause. A two year old child may be a potential parent but she is not an actual parent. Being an actual parent may come later.

Such a potential cause needs to change from potential cause to actual cause. Since it changes it cannot be eternal.
The universe has a temporal beginning, but ontologically speaking it has always existed as an effect of the first cause.
This I do not accept. It it had a beginning then it did not always exist. If it always existed then it did not have a beginning. One or the other, not both.
Thus you would have a point if what you mean is that because it is in the nature of the first cause to produce effects it is impossible to consider a reality where only God existed.
Such a reality is possible, but nothing else would exist since an eternal God could not change from potential cause to actual cause.
If you are saying that the universe is eternal in this sense, then that I would agree with, since if Christians consider God to be perfect and that God created the universe, then we must also admit that it is perfect for God to create; and thus it is a perfect expression of Gods nature to share his existence.
I take the universe to be “all that exists”. If God exists then He is included in that definition. If you take the universe to be “everything that exists except God”, then you can call my version the ‘Godiverse’ to differentiate it.
the creation is not something that takes place in time.
This I do not accept. Our current material bubble universe started 13.5 billion years ago in time.
Instead we must think of the effect and the cause existing together simultaneously and eternally.
If they are simultaneous then how can you tell one from the other? Which is the effect and which is the cause? If the cause comes before the effect then we can tell them apart easily. If they are simultaneous then we cannot do that.

If they are eternal then the effect needs no cause because it is also eternal. The Kalaam argument indicates that something without a beginning needs no cause.

rossum
 
A thing which has never caused any effect cannot properly be described as a cause.
I agree.
That is what I am saying. The description “cause” cannot be applied to everything, only to things that have had an effect.
I agree
There is no “cause” before there is an effect.
That depends on what you mean. If you are saying that an entity cannot be considered a cause until it has caused something, then yes that is correct.
The two labels can only be applied simultaneously. See Nagarjuna’s Mulamadhyamakakarika, Chapter One for more details.
I’ll pass.
For the purposes of this argument I am not talking about the existence of something. I am talking about the applicability of particular labels to things.
Yes. There is no necessary reason why we should consider something a cause until it has caused something.
My parents both existed before I was conceived. However at that time it would have been incorrect to describe them as parents. Since I am their eldest child, before me they were not parents. At most they were potential parents.
Yes, because they are potential beings in time, they follow the rules of time.
However, before that effect is actually produced, the cause is only a potential cause,
This is true of imperfect entities, because they have not fulfilled their potentiality. They require change in-order to fulfil their potentiality.
Such a potential cause needs to change from potential cause to actual cause. Since it changes it cannot be eternal.
It depends on what you mean by eternal. Yes, because it is imperfect it requires change in-order to actualise the potentiality in its being.
 
This I do not accept. It it had a beginning then it did not always exist.
Whether you like it or not, a beginning does not necessitate a “temporal existential beginning”. Because time is an intrinsic aspect of the universe, we cannot say that there was a time when the universe did not exist. Time does not have a beginning in Time. That is logically impossible, and to imply that it did is self refuting. When people say there was a beginning they are using analogous terms and do not intend to imply temporal extensions. Rather, there is a point which has no physical extension; this is to say there is no “beyond” or before that point and thus no change/potentiality; there is nothing physical. The word “before” requires temporality in so far as we are describing a temporal change from nothing to something. There is only that which proceeds. The first smallest part of physical change has always existed because there is no before its existence. But there is a true “beginning”, the starting point of change, even though it has always existed. Its just not a temporal beginning, and there is no real reason why we should limit contingency or finiteness to temporal definitions. Something can be contingent upon something else for its existence without there being a temporal beginning. For example contingency can express itself in a hierarchical manner, such as the table holding up the TV or the bridge stopping the cars from falling into the river. These are temporal events but there are evidently extra-temporal aspects to them that have nothing to do with change but rather is to do with having a sufficient foundation. Words such as beyond and before are temporal concepts describing temporal experiences, but these words can also be used to express logical limitations in physical things in so far as their existence is concerned. A thing might have always existed, but that doesn’t mean that it is not dependent on something else for its existence; there is nothing which you can point to that would necessitate the idea that the length of time or change is synonymous to its ability to exist. Time is logically contingent, because it is made up of changing finite parts which cannot explain their own existence. Out of nothing comes nothing, and thus you cannot get change or potentiality from nothing regardless of whether or not change has always existed. That is why time needs a non-temporal first cause; and we mean it in a non-temporal sense; first symbolising that which is existential superior to all the contingent and finite beings which are dependent on it for their existence. Such doesn’t have to be demonstrated as a temporal dependency. Change cannot exist by itself because it does not have the power or the explanation of its existence in its own nature. The first cause argument is not a scientific argument. It is not because time had a beginning that we are saying that we need a first cause. When somebody says that the universe began to exist and thus needs a cause, they are saying that change is finite and thus it needs an explanation that is not bound by temporal physical limitations. There is a finite quantity of change that cannot be accounted for. They are not saying that change has a temporal beginning.

When I talk of contingency I am talking about a logical contingency, as in that which is required in-order for something to exist. It is not in any way evident that time needs to have a temporal cause and neither can it. That is why the first cause cannot possibly be a physical cause. It has to be a non-physical cause that is “actus purus” existing simultaneously with its effect, which is made possible by the fact that it has no physical extensions and thus no physical limitations.
 
…The description “parents” is contingent.
The description is contingent on the describer not on the effect. We do not even need an actual object to exist in order to invent a description for it, like the term “squared circle”. Hence, the description is not contingent on an effect it is entirely contingent on the describer. **Thus, cause is not contingent on effect as you have claimed, not even as a description. **
 
If it always existed then it did not have a beginning. One or the other, not both.
It did not have a temporal beginning, but that doesn’t mean that change is not finite or does not require a cause.
but nothing else would exist since an eternal God could not change from potential cause to actual cause.
A being that is actus purus does not need to change since its will to create is identical with its being; this is to say that its will is a perfect expression of its being. I explained this already. This is what we mean by God. You can keep you straw-man definitions to yourself.
I take the universe to be “all that exists”.
The universe is everything that is physical. Why is your definition relevant? Why should I consider it to be anything more than the assertion that it is.
This I do not accept. Our current material bubble universe started 13.5 billion years ago in time.
This is true, but its beginning is not a temporal beginning. There is not a time when the universe did not exist.
If they are simultaneous then how can you tell one from the other?
One is made up of finite changing contingent parts, the other is not.
The Kalaam argument indicates that something without a beginning needs no cause.

rossum
There are many versions of the kalaam argument. You should not assume that we are using any particular one, if any of them. You keep making the assumption that all existential dependencies have to be temporal dependencies. This is not true.
 
Time does not have a beginning in Time.

Good point.

But the relation between God and time is still mysterious. For instance, according to Thomas, the Incarnation was not a change in God. But, at some point in time, Jesus did not exist. It is hard to understand why the Incarnation was not a change in the Second Person of the Holy Trinity.

And, more generally, it is hard to understand potentiality except against a horizon of time. I’m thinking of angels.

I think Thomistic “analogy” may show us a way out of this quandary. Please elaborate more on this.
 
The description is contingent on the describer not on the effect.
In order to be accurate the existence of at least one child is required. We can dismiss inaccurate descriptions out of hand.
We do not even need an actual object to exist in order to invent a description for it, like the term “squared circle”.
That is an inaccurate description and can be dismissed.

If something is to be accurately described as a cause then it has to have had an effect.

rossum
 
This is true of imperfect entities, because they have not fulfilled their potentiality. They require change in-order to fulfil their potentiality.
Any entity, whether perfect or imperfect, requires change to move from potential to actual. Since potential is not the same as actual then X(potential) =/= X(actual) so X has changed.
It depends on what you mean by eternal.
X is eternal iff for all times T, X exists at time T.
When people say there was a beginning they are using analogous terms and do not intend to imply temporal extensions.
A beginning may be in space: “Canada begins two miles north of here.” Argument from analogy is dangerous, especially with concepts like God, which are unlike anything in our usual experience.
The word “before” requires temporality in so far as we are describing a temporal change from nothing to something.
In discussing cause and effect we use time to distinguish one from the other. The cause exists previous in time to the effect. When the effect begins in time the cause changes from potential cause to actual cause.
When I talk of contingency I am talking about a logical contingency, as in that which is required in-order for something to exist.
I am also talking about contingency. In order for an actual cause to exist there must be an effect. If there is no effect then there is no actual cause, at most there is a potential cause. Claims that there is an eternal actual cause are hence required to show an eternal effect to justify the description “actual cause”.
It has to be a non-physical cause that is “actus purus” existing simultaneously with its effect
If it is eternal and simultaneous with its effect then the effect is also eternal. If both are eternal how do we determine which of the two is the cause and which is the effect?

rossum
 
A being that is actus purus does not need to change since its will to create is identical with its being; this is to say that its will is a perfect expression of its being. I explained this already. This is what we mean by God.
I do not accept an actual eternal cause without an eternal effect. If there is no effect then the cause cannot be an actual cause, only a potential cause.
This is true, but its beginning is not a temporal beginning. There is not a time when the universe did not exist.
Beware of using science in philosophical discussions. String theory has time existing before the Big bang.
One is made up of finite changing contingent parts, the other is not.
Is God made up of parts (whether finite or infinite)? We see the “hand of God” mentioned in the bible.

Does God change?

If God is described as “Creator” then that is contingent on there being a creation. A creator who has created nothing is not an actual creator.
You keep making the assumption that all existential dependencies have to be temporal dependencies. This is not true.
I agree, but for the purposes of this discussion it is easier to use temporal dependency as an example, rather than repeat the same argument for all other possible dependencies.

rossum
 
In order to be accurate the existence of at least one child is required…If something is to be accurately described as a cause then it has to have had an effect.
All descriptions, even “accurate” or inaccurate descriptions, are contingent on the describer and not the effect. Therefore cause is not contingent on effect even for an “accurate” description, as you claim. Are you now ready to admit that causes are not contingent on effects as you had claimed?
 
Exactly the same argument applies to where we are in God’s “lifetime”.
Rossum:

That’s absurd: no one would make that argument. Especially, no one who understood what infinity means.
Whether we have an eternal universe or an eternal God, we are all here and now, with an eternity of God or universe behind us and an eternity of God or universe in front of us.
But, the ‘universe’ is not creative. It is ‘causative’, at least in the sense that a large part of it consists of secondary material causal “stuff.” The Laws of Thermodynamics see to this. And, the Laws of Thermodynamics do not apply to a Creative being. (I need not have told you this - you already knew it.)
As long as there is something eternal in existence, which we both agree on, then we are somewhere in the middle of it. Given that fact, then there is obviously an error in your reasoning.
No. We can never be “in the middle of” an eternal (infinite) non-being. If God were not a being, per se, we could not be in any sense correlative with Him. The finite cannot be correlative with infinity. There is only one way. (Despite your denials, you also know this.)

God bless,
jd
 
Rossum:

That’s absurd: no one would make that argument. Especially, no one who understood what infinity means.

But, the ‘universe’ is not creative. It is ‘causative’, at least in the sense that a large part of it consists of secondary material causal “stuff.” The Laws of Thermodynamics see to this. And, the Laws of Thermodynamics do not apply to a Creative being. (I need not have told you this - you already knew it.)

No. We can never be “in the middle of” an eternal (infinite) non-being. If God were not a being, per se, we could not be in any sense correlative with Him. The finite cannot be correlative with infinity. There is only one way. (Despite your denials, you also know this.)

God bless,
jd
Don’t even try JD. He’s not worth your time.
Your [Rossum’s] debating strategy seems to be:
  1. Invent philosophical problem to take down a position you don’t like.
  2. Present problem as a response to a paragraph which has nothing to do with it.
  3. Get “problem” completely annihilated by beginner in philosophy
  4. Restate problem exactly the same, fail to refute or define out opponent’s objection, spruce it up by giving a second option which is a total strawman.
  5. If 4 fails too many times, start talking about some Mystic Quasi-Knowledge and hope to win on your own grounds.
Yep, you should publish this. Way better than that “Aristotle” guy’s way of refuting a position!
 
Do you know anything that does not have a cause?
Rossum:

Sorry to butt in here, as I know Tonyrey can more than adequately take care of his own, but, I had to interject one thing: “God.” God is cause-less. We Christians call the cause-less First Cause, “God.” What do practicing Buddhists call Him/It?
Please define goodness, justice etc. in the absence of any other objects.
Good: anything (including anything that is not per se a “thing” or “object,” e.g., a fleeting thought, an idea, a perception, a mood) that is pleasing, welcome, desired, approved of, beneficial, advantageous, and so forth and so on, consistently by the vast majority of non-aberrant humans.
They have no meaning on their own, they need a referent. I can ask “Is X good?” I cannot ask “Is good?”
But one can ask: “Is good good?”
Scripture and science has not ruled out the possibility either.
That’s not something that Scripture would rule on. And, on that topic, science can but merely conjecture, i.e., in the same way as any of us can conjecture the existence of a fight between Rodan and Godzilla on the island of Japan.
The description “First” must have a dependence on the criterion. It is how we recognise first rather than second or fifteenth.
First may be a mere heuristic context. The “dependence” you postulate is merely to make such relationships intelligible to you and me. David Hume would completely disagree with your insistence on the use of the word, “dependence.”
Carthorses did not exist before carts.
Almost any horse (except perhaps for the very young or the very aged) can be tethered to a cart and known as a “carthorse.” Almost-any-horse certainly existed before carts. Our naming convention is not essential to the horse’s beingness.
I disagree. Power has no relation to cause and effect. A father may be stronger than his son, or the son may be stronger than his father. The power relation between them may change over time.
You are limiting ‘power’ to mean ‘strength’. Certainly ‘power’ has a relationship: the child has not the power to cause a baby – at least not yet. The “power relation” between father and son changing is inconsequential. Any such relationship is merely an “idea,” i.e., a conceptual exigency, i.e., one that is devised of the juxtaposing of two (or more) differing mental pictures (such as, the conflating of the mental picture of a horse with the mental picture of a narwhal, into the mental picture of a unicorn).
In Buddhism they aren’t; in Christianity they are. I was using the Christian definition of person. I have an understanding.
Being as it is based in the Buddhist analysis of what constitutes a person then I suspect you would not agree with it.
Scientology, which is ( as I have been told) the offspring of Buddhism, sees the human being (person) quite a bit more enigmatically than Buddhism. Scientology sees the body as merely a temporary housing for at least one Thetan [up to perhaps billions of Thetans – one (or more) for each cell]. I find the concepts of the Thetan (soul) in Scientology much more satisfactory than the concepts of it in Buddhism – at least so far. Interestingly, Hubbard decided not to place his ideas in such precariousness. For example, he limits the universe/multiverse (existence of Thetans) to only 95 trillion years; almost long enough so that the average person will not care to look back any further. Besides, if one postulates the existence of the universe and “life” to a mere 95 trillion years, one does not have to try to work one’s way out of the dilemmas of finitude negotiating within infinity. (Scientology may be something you should look into.)
Scripture works. How do you know Scripture is true?
Christians believe Scripture is true because of its extensive internal consistency. An argument can be made that this idea of “consistency” doesn’t hold as there are almost 40,000 Christian sects. On the other side of that argument is the argument that the differences between the sects are so minuscule as to be little more than personal preferencing: i.e., my booboo hurts me more than your booboo hurts you. In fact, most of the differences revolve around the intractable unwillingness of many Christians to recognize the authority of the Church.

God bless,
jd
 
I do not accept an actual eternal cause without an eternal effect. If there is no effect then the cause cannot be an actual cause, only a potential cause.
The fact that time does not have a beginning in time is perfectly in line with the concept of a non-temporal non-physical first cause. Creation is necessarily non-temporal in the fact that time begins with time and not in it. Your refusal to accept that there are other ways of understanding existential contingency and creation outside of the conceptual limitations of temporality, is a flaw on your part. It has been pointed out to you that the creation event is analogous to but not synonymous to temporal causes and effects. It is analogous in that the effect is dependent on its cause for existence. Time has to be rooted in an ultimate reality which does not change because it is eternal existence. This must be the case because out of nothing comes nothing. At most you have demonstrated only that the first cause cannot be physical. Thus your issue about time having a beginning is mute and irrelevant. I have explained to you how actus purus can be a cause without changing. You have ignored it in favor of more baseless assertions.
 
The Buddhist universe is not “finite materiality” either. What exists is a mixture of material and spiritual. Material universes come and go.
By what cause? (Even here Scientology lacks something: it postulates no urgency, no causation, and no rules, to the comings and goings of STEM and spiritual matter. It’s just purely postulational.)
The spiritual part of existence may or may not be accompanied by a material part.
By what rules?
Presently there is a material part. Eventually that material part will be destroyed and a period with no material part will ensue. A new material part will appear at some later time.
How do we know that it will?
That was my error in not explaining myself more clearly. I do not postulate an infinite materiality. Something infinite may possibly exist at the level of the cosmologists’ multiverse, but that is very different from the standard material universe (electrons, protons and neutrons) that we are used to.
Not even there, if such be an ontological urgency. It would have to be very different! The “…standard material universe (electrons, protons and neutrons) that we are used to…” are all subject to (the universe’s) expansion/entropy. (That the universe/multiverse can undergo expansion/contraction cycles infinitely is a violation of the laws of physics: a contracting universe is a violation of the 2nd Law of Thermodynamics. So, it cannot happen this way. And, if one postulates merely an infinite multiverse, one violates the rules of actual infinity, as Hilbert points out.)
That I do.
David Hilbert doesn’t. 🤷

God bless,
jd
 
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