K
Krocker
Guest
Why does everything go back to Luther? Luther wasn’t infallible, nor have I ever claimed he was infallible. He was just a guy who disagreed with what the Catholic church was teaching … 500 years ago. Get over it. Defend your beliefs instead of attacking a centuries old dead guy.
Now, back to my question, which you failed to answer. You claim that “EVERYONE” simply believed the Immaculate Conception since the time of Jesus. I have two problems with that.
One, even if that were the case, it was not written in the Bible – the most historically verifiable book in the history of the world. It may have been written elsewhere – but it’s not as historically verifiable. It may have existed orally – but an oral tradition is less verifiable than a written tradition. So, again, given the foregoing, why do you choose to give it EQUAL status?
Second, your rendition of the “facts” is, at best, clearly disputed and, at worst, just plain wrong. You should read what Origen, St. Basil, St. Chrystostom, among MANY others, wrote about the Immaculate Conception and then we’ll talk. I understand that some believed it, but not “EVERYONE” believed it. Also, there is no question as to the controversy surrounding the infallibility declaration in 1854 – some even calling it the “test case” for infallibility because of the correspondeing controversy. But, I don’t want to stray too far from my point. Even assuming for the sake of argument that the Immaculate Conception was “always” believed, it is not in the Bible and cannot be verified with the same historical accuracy as the Bible.
So, I’ll again pose the question: why do you give extra-Biblical doctrine the same weight as the Bible when it cannot be equally historically verified?
Now, back to my question, which you failed to answer. You claim that “EVERYONE” simply believed the Immaculate Conception since the time of Jesus. I have two problems with that.
One, even if that were the case, it was not written in the Bible – the most historically verifiable book in the history of the world. It may have been written elsewhere – but it’s not as historically verifiable. It may have existed orally – but an oral tradition is less verifiable than a written tradition. So, again, given the foregoing, why do you choose to give it EQUAL status?
Second, your rendition of the “facts” is, at best, clearly disputed and, at worst, just plain wrong. You should read what Origen, St. Basil, St. Chrystostom, among MANY others, wrote about the Immaculate Conception and then we’ll talk. I understand that some believed it, but not “EVERYONE” believed it. Also, there is no question as to the controversy surrounding the infallibility declaration in 1854 – some even calling it the “test case” for infallibility because of the correspondeing controversy. But, I don’t want to stray too far from my point. Even assuming for the sake of argument that the Immaculate Conception was “always” believed, it is not in the Bible and cannot be verified with the same historical accuracy as the Bible.
So, I’ll again pose the question: why do you give extra-Biblical doctrine the same weight as the Bible when it cannot be equally historically verified?