But Aquinas, for example, when he notes that the scriptures refer to God’s arm, says that the “literal” meaning of God’s arm is His operative power. Which is a rather metaphorical usage of the term “literal.”
No, this is pretty well in line with what is meant by the “literal sense of Scripture”. It doesn’t mean “whatever is said on the surface by the text”; it means “the meaning that the inspired writer intended to convey.” So, in my “raining cats and dogs” example – if it were in Scripture – would carry the “literal sense” of “it’s really raining hard out there!”
Magnanimity:
But what Freddy and others in this thread have been getting at is that the conscience is always operative. The Fathers knew this, and they appreciated the fact that one’s conscience can (and should) act as a defensive check against any reading of the OT that suggests that God is a moral monster.
It was Augustine (IIRC) who taught that, if the surface words of the text seem to indicate that God is evil, then we’ve misunderstood the text and need to search for an intended meaning that
doesn’t assert such a counter-intuitive sense. So, I agree with you here.
If our conscience is telling us “this passage means God is evil”, then our conscience is misinterpreting the passage.
Freddy:
It seems that you would obey God…but…only if you thought the command was a moral one.
No. It means that if God is God, then we presume He
is moral. So, if there’s something there that makes me think He
isn’t, then I have to re-examine my understanding, since it leads to contradiction.
Which seems to open up the biggest can of worms imagineable. Because you are then applying your standards of morality onto God.
No, I don’t think so. I’m looking at God as God, not as a human.
your comment indicates that you would need to make a decision as to whether the act was’immoral for Him’.
No – I’d have to ask whether I understood Him properly.
So… unless I think I’m mistaken about God’s nature, then I presume it’s all-good. Anything that contradicts that presumption, then, is up for re-examination.
OR as Georgias has suggested, do we consider whether the act is immoral for God before acting.
Not exactly what I was saying: if I think it looks immoral, then I have to re-think my interpretation. Am I getting it wrong or is God a monster? Can’t be the latter, so I better take a look at the former!
But what we have had in this thread is a number of people, post hoc, justifying the massacre.
Only if it’s a literal, historical account. If not, then this whole analysis can be chucked.
if someone suggests that we are justified in bypassing our conscience and should act on God’s commands whatever we personally think of it, then it allows for any act whatsoever
However, the person is responsible for his interpretation and his actions.