T
Thing
Guest
When?Yes because she was conceived of 2 human beings. Anyone conceived of in this way inherits the sin of Adam.
When?Yes because she was conceived of 2 human beings. Anyone conceived of in this way inherits the sin of Adam.
It reveals an error that all of what God has revealed is found only in 'His written word", and athat is depressing.The advancement of this thread is depressing. Well, the advancement of the OP is depressing.
In the first place, the sinlessness of Mary is recorded in the NT, in the single word “kecharitomene”. So that assertion is refuted. Now of course you will argue about what that word means, but your arguments have zero authority. There is no more reason anybody should believe your interpretation of scripture than they should believe that of the man in the moon. Furthermore, your claim that everything taught by the apostles is found in the most explicit form in the NT is another assertion without any support. Show me where in the NT it states in the most explicit form that everything taught by the apostles is found in the NT in the most explicit form. Of course you cannot show such a thing, so we have no reason to accept your assertion, and we have every reason to accept the opposite claim of the Church because she was there, and you were not.If you are going to claim something is of the apostles that is not recorded in the NT then it is up to you to show exactly what this is. Do you know of something that the apostles specifically taught that is not recorded in the NT?
The Catholic Church today is identical in being with the NT Church. The deposit of faith guarded and taught by both is identical. You weren’t there, so you have no business claiming otherwise.The Catholic church of today is not identical to the church of the NT. The Catholic church of today has doctrines and practices that the NT did not have.
You’re distorting scripture to advance your manmade theology. Rom 5:12 does not say that all men are born in sin. It says, in the most explicit form, that all have sinned. So what sin has a newborn baby committed?One of the problems with your statement is that it cannot be supported by its doctrines and practices.Take this topic of Mary being sinless. The NT did not teach such a doctrine about Mary for the mere fact it states all men are born in sin. See Romans 5:12 for example. The NT never makes an exception for Mary.
What does sanctification mean?“But there were false prophets also among the people, even as there shall be false teachers among you, who privily shall bring in damnable heresies, even denying the Lord that bought them, & bring upon themselves swift destruction.” 2 Peter 2:1. This describes the heresy & blasphemy of the Marian doctrine, cult. Pope John Paul II, in the Berean Call of 4/97, his prayer to Mary,“Sustain us, O Virgin Mary, on our journey of faith & obtain for us the grace of eternal salvation.” What blasphemy to ask Mary to obtain what God offers freely by His grace through Christ. In Vatican Information Service, May 7, 1997, he asked all Christians “to make room for Mary in their daily lives, acknowledging her providential role in the path of salvation.” HERESY!!! Mary was a sinner who was saved by grace in the same manner of any sinner who trusts Jesus for salvation. She is not the Mother of God or Ever Virgin or Queen of Heaven or Co-Redemptrix with Christ.The Apostles taught absolutely nothing about Marian worship. Men do not need Mary to bring them to Christ. “For there is one God, & one mediator between God & men, the man Christ Jesus; Who gave Himself a ransom for all, to be testified in due time.” 1 Tim. 2:5,6. “Come unto Me, all ye that labour & are heavy laden, & I will give you rest’ Matt 11:28. The Bible nowhere invites men to come to Mary or to trust in Mary or to pray to Mary. The following random quotes from the book, Ten Series of Meditations on the Mysteries of the Rosary, by John Ferraro, is intended to give an overview of Catholic dogma concerning the Virgin Mary. Ferraro’s book was given the Nihil Obstat & the Imprimatur, which is an official statement by the CC that the book 'is free from doctrinal or moral error.” Therefore, we can take these quotes as official Catholic doctrine.
There is absolutely no Scriptural foundation for any of the beliefs or practices detailed in this report. No wonder Paul stated this warning, “For I know this, that after my departing shall grievous wolves enter in among you, not sparing the flock. Also of your own selves shall men arise, speaking PERVERSE things, to draw away disciples after them.” It was & is the Catholic Church who has done this. This blasphemous dogma [Mary’s sinlessness] detracts from the sinlessness of Christ, Who ALONE was born of a virgin & immaculate. The Bible nowhere says Mary was sinless. The ONLY exception is the Lord Jesus Christ, Who ALONE is ‘holy, harmless, undefiled, seperate from sinners, & made higher than the heavens’ Heb. 7:26. Mary knew her own sin & acknowledged her need of a Savior, Luke 1:47. None of the Lord’s apostles exalted Mary; none of them applied to her such titles as sinless, immaculate, ever virgin, Mother of God, Blessed Virgin, Holy Queen, Queen of Heaven, Our Lady, Co-Redemptrix, Immaculate Virgin, etc. The apostles taught us that Jesus Christ ALONE is the Mediator between God & men, 1 Tim 2:5. Our Savior didn’t hold up His mother above anyone else, Matt. 12:46-50." Come out of Babylon my people." Rev. 18:4.The spirit of anti-Christ is, read 1 John 4:1-3.
- Mary is co-Redemptrix of the human race.
- The church & the saints greet her thus: “You, O Mary, together with Jesus Christ, redeemed us.”
- God has ordained that NO GRACE will be granted us except through Mary. It is a doctrine preached by all saints that NO GRACE will come to us from heaven without passing through Mary’s hands. NO ONE will be SAVED nor OBTAIN MERCY except through You, O’heavenly lady. Remember this well, no one will enter heaven without passing through Mary as one would pass through a door. O’Mary, our SALVATION is in your hands. (A quick note here. Notice the word You, for Mary is capitalized to denote divinity. Also, Jesus called Himself the Door. Blasphemy!!!)
- Mary is our co-Redemptrix becayse she gave us Jesus pledge if our salvation. Furthermore, she is co- Redemptrix of the human race, because with Christ she rabsomed mankind from the power of Satan.
5)Jesus redeemed us with the blood of His body, Mary with the agonies of her heart.
6)We were condemned through the fault of one woman; we are saved through the merits of another woman. Just as Eve was the root of death for everyone, so Mary was the source of life for everyone. (So much for our Savior as our Righteousness. So much for our Savior as the Way, Truth & LIFE. Blasphemy!!!)- If we spread devotion to Mary, we will gain heaven-- "Who explains me (Mary) will have life everlasting.
8)It is necessary for us to have a mediator BESIDES Jesus as a mediator…- It is important to be devoted to Mary a it is to enter heaven, because no one can enter Pradise who is not devoted to Mary. (BLASPHEMY!!!)
At conception.When?
VociMike;4255489]
Originally Posted by justasking4
If you are going to claim something is of the apostles that is not recorded in the NT then it is up to you to show exactly what this is. Do you know of something that the apostles specifically taught that is not recorded in the NT?
Not so. Here is what the word means: Full of graceVociMike
In the first place, the sinlessness of Mary is recorded in the NT, in the single word “kecharitomene”. So that assertion is refuted.
If i were making the meaning up then you would have a leg to stand on. However, this definition is the definition that scholars use to determine what this word means. Its not about authority but what is the truth.Now of course you will argue about what that word means, but your arguments have zero authority. There is no more reason anybody should believe your interpretation of scripture than they should believe that of the man in the moon.
Since you claim your church was there can you give me a couple of specific and explicit examples of what the apostles themselves taught about Mary being sinless not found in the NT?Furthermore, your claim that everything taught by the apostles is found in the most explicit form in the NT is another assertion without any support. Show me where in the NT it states in the most explicit form that everything taught by the apostles is found in the NT in the most explicit form. Of course you cannot show such a thing, so we have no reason to accept your assertion, and we have every reason to accept the opposite claim of the Church because she was there, and you were not.
No need to be there to make my point. No one can make such a claim today anyway. Rather what we can do is to compare doctrines and practices of the Catholic church with the Scriptures and see if they are the same. We know in a number of places they are not the same. The Marian doctrines for example were never taught by the apostles.Quote:justasking4
The Catholic church of today is not identical to the church of the NT. The Catholic church of today has doctrines and practices that the NT did not have.
VociMike
The Catholic Church today is identical in being with the NT Church. The deposit of faith guarded and taught by both is identical. You weren’t there, so you have no business claiming otherwise.
Quote:justasking4
One of the problems with your statement is that it cannot be supported by its doctrines and practices.Take this topic of Mary being sinless. The NT did not teach such a doctrine about Mary for the mere fact it states all men are born in sin. See Romans 5:12 for example. The NT never makes an exception for Mary.
The “all who sinned” would include Mary.VociMike
You’re distorting scripture to advance your manmade theology. Rom 5:12 does not say that all men are born in sin. It says, in the most explicit form, that all have sinned.
Is it not true that babies are baptized because they come into the world with original sin and baptism washes that away.So what sin has a newborn baby committed?
Romans 5:12 doesn’t say “all have sinned,” it says, “all men have sinned.” If you’re going to take “all” literally (“all means all”) then you must also take “men” literally (“men means men”). So either Romans 5:12 doesn’t apply to Mary because she isn’t a man, or else “all” doesn’t literally mean every human being.The “all who sinned” would include Mary.
You are quite simply wrong about the word, and in particular the word tense, all of your un-named “scholars” notwithstanding. Here is one quick refutation I found:Not so. Here is what the word means: Full of grace
χαριτόω charitóō; contracted charitó̄, fut. charitó̄sō, from cháris (5485), grace. To grace, highly honor or greatly favor. In the NT spoken only of the divine favor, as to the virgin Mary in Luke 1:28, kecharitōménē, the perf. pass. part. sing. fem. The verb charitóō declares the virgin Mary to be highly favored, approved of God to conceive the Son of God through the Holy Spirit. The only other use of charitóō is in Eph. 1:6 where believers are said to be “accepted in the beloved,” i.e., objects of grace.
This is what the word means. Notice it says nothing about being sinless.
If i were making the meaning up then you would have a leg to stand on. However, this definition is the definition that scholars use to determine what this word means. Its not about authority but what is the truth.
Yes, they taught that Mary was sinless. What more do you want?Since you claim your church was there can you give me a couple of specific and explicit examples of what the apostles themselves taught about Mary being sinless not found in the NT?
You keep making the same unsupported claim over and over. How do you know what was taught by the apostles? Were you there? The Church was there.No need to be there to make my point. No one can make such a claim today anyway. Rather what we can do is to compare doctrines and practices of the Catholic church with the Scriptures and see if they are the same. We know in a number of places they are not the same. The Marian doctrines for example were never taught by the apostles.
Then it must also include newborn babies. What sins have newborn babies committed?The “all who sinned” would include Mary.
You don’t understand original sin. Your phrase “with original sin” is so vague as to be meaningless. If all have sinned, what sin has a newborn baby committed? Have newborn babies committed original sin?Is it not true that babies are baptized because they come into the world with original sin and baptism washes that away.
Pretty sure this answers my question. Thank you.Now there are two absolutely crucial reasons why God chose to Grant Mary special Sanctifying Grace right from Her Existence:
Firstly Mary had Freewill like us, and She was mortal like us, and Satan wanted Her to Fall away from Grace like us: Therefore She would naturally be disobedient to God at least in some sense and level because as a human She is naturally guilty of Original Sin which causes Her to be subject to commiting personal sins. As a human she is naturally under the jurisdiction of Satan who gained power over all humans when Eve and Adam submitted themselves to him. Therefore; Mary could never Freely agree to cooperate with God’s Salvation because sin rejects Salvation and sin can never cooperate in Salvation because sin exists only for Death and Evil; and of course Satan would not let it happen and would stop it at all costs because he hates God and Life.
So we have a problem in that God respects our Freewill; sinners under Satan’s Power cannot cooperate in Salvation and God wanted to Save us in Christ Jesus our Lord. The only way God’s Plan could be fulfilled is by God preserving Mary from Sin entirely, including Original, so that Satan and Sin would have no power over Her to stop Her saying “yes” (Luk 1:38) to God and paving the way of the Saviour of the World! By being “Saved” (Luk 1:47) before being trapped by sin She was able to have Her own Freewill; cooperate in our Salvation through Her “yes” to God.
Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned: Rom 5:12Romans 5:12 doesn’t say “all have sinned,” it says, “all men have sinned.” If you’re going to take “all” literally (“all means all”) then you must also take “men” literally (“men means men”). So either Romans 5:12 doesn’t apply to Mary because she isn’t a man, or else “all” doesn’t literally mean every human being.
God tells us in Rom 5:12 that death passed upon all men so are you trying to suggest that women don’t die??COLOR=“Blue”]Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned: Rom 5:12
Do I believe that Mary is part of sinful humanity. YesDo you believe God was born of a sinful virgin?
No, just trying to show you the logical errors of your assertions.God tells us in Rom 5:12 that death passed upon all men so are you trying to suggest that women don’t die??
I just realized how erroneous and illogical her logic is.No, just trying to show you the logical errors of your assertions.
ja4, Catholic theology does not come from scripture. On the contrary scripture reflects Catholic theology. The Teaching of Jesus, from whence all Catholicism comes, was delivered whole and entire to the Apostles before a word of the NT was ever written.This is a good example of the problems with Catholic theology. Assumptions are treated as facts. The idea that Mary was " uncorrupted and perfect as God intended for the human race" is a case in point. There is no evidence for this claim anywhere in Scripture. The incarnation did not demand a perfect sinless woman for Him to take on human flesh.
To the extent that the fathers reflect the inspired and inerrant teachings of the Apostles that also formed the scriptures, they are reflecting the infallible Sacred Tradition of the Church. The fathers also contain writings that do not necessarily reflect the Sacred Tradition.Are these writings of church fathers considered inspired-inerrant? Do their writings carry the same authority as the Scriptures?
God is His perfect wisdom knew that when He told us in His written word that all have sinned that some people would try to use this to argue that Jesus was sinful. So He clearly tells us in His written word that Jesus is sinless.All have sinned does not necessary means all sin. If it did, then Jesus would be included in that.
This is not necessary. We know there are exceptions, and we know who they are.. Are you trying to suggest that all the names of all the people who have sinned should be written in this verse??
No. It is not any more obvious than stillborn babies are included, or disabled persons.Code:It is so obvious that Mary is included in the all have sinned in Rom 5:12.
There is no need for this either. What we are trying to show you is that your interpretation is wrong, not that God’s word is wrong.Code:Now if you want to try and disprove what God tells us in His written word
I agree, this is stupid. It clearly demonstrates that you cannot understand what we are trying to communicate to you.Some people are trying to suggest that the “stillborn” baby theory proves that Mary is sinless but this theory is just plain stupid.
What is your goal here, emerald? Surely you realize by now that we are not going to abandon the Apostolic Teaching so that we can embrace your flawed interpretation of one scripture verse. What do you hope to accomplish?I mean we all know that Mary was born and that she grew up into adulthood.
Now Gods Truth is that Mary was indeed part of sinful humanity and that she was truly blessed among women to be given the privilege of giving birth to the Blessed Lord Jesus(we know this because God tells us so in His written word), who came into this world to save sinners like you, me and Mary(we know this because God tells us so in His written word).
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This is a Catholic forum. It’s not arbitrary or uninformed. Read the forum rules.Another arbitrary & uninformed statement. … That means nothing to me. That is your system of belief, not mine. I respect that. Just disagree.
See post 145…Actually your comment is a good example of the problems with Protestant theology. As soon as you say there is no evidence for this claim anywhere in Scripture (which we don’t concede, BTW) you demonstrate that your standard is flawed. Scripture is not God’s entire revelation, no matter how many times you claim the contrary. So the perfectly reasonable reply to that charge (even if it were true, which we don’t concede) is “so what?”
Who ever said that it had to be in Scripture? Ask the authors.Where in Scripture does it even hint that being full of grace means you can’t sin?
Where did Jesus say anything about Mary being a treasure and that you should implore her help? Where in Scripture did He say such a thing?
Absolutely 100% false.The only thing the church has from the apostles is the written NT. To claim there is more is to go beyond what is written and would not be of the apostles.
By that argument, I don’t owe any taxes this year because the Scriptures don’t say that I do.What is important is the truth and the truth is that Mary was not sinless for the mere fact the Scriptures never make such a claim for her.
This is a Catholic forum. Accusing us of blasephemy will get you shown the door in short order.“But there were false prophets also among the people, even as there shall be false teachers among you, who privily shall bring in damnable heresies, even denying the Lord that bought them, & bring upon themselves swift destruction.” 2 Peter 2:1. This describes the heresy & blasphemy of the Marian doctrine, cult. Pope John Paul II, in the Berean Call of 4/97, his prayer to Mary,“Sustain us, O Virgin Mary, on our journey of faith & obtain for us the grace of eternal salvation.” What blasphemy to ask Mary to obtain what God offers freely by His grace through Christ.
So what?The Bible nowhere invites men to come to Mary or to trust in Mary or to pray to Mary.
You don’t understand Nihil Obstat and Imprimatur. They only mean that the book doesn’t contradict doctrine, not that the book defines it. These 2 seals could have also been given to Einstein’s theory of relativity, but it doesn’t mean that would be Church doctrine.The following random quotes from the book, Ten Series of Meditations on the Mysteries of the Rosary, by John Ferraro, is intended to give an overview of Catholic dogma concerning the Virgin Mary. Ferraro’s book was given the Nihil Obstat & the Imprimatur, which is an official statement by the CC that the book 'is free from doctrinal or moral error." Therefore, we can take these quotes as official Catholic doctrine.
There you go again with your “fanciful speculation”. You are dead wrong. Your arrogance in not accepting the Church’s teaching is on your shoulders alone.Do I believe that Mary is part of sinful humanity. Yes
So yes Jesus’ mother was a sinner and isn’t wonderful that Jesus came into this world to save sinners like his mother.
There is fanciful speculation that Mary needed to be sinless in order to give birth to the sinless Lord Jesus.
So we need more fanciful speculation to say that Mary’s mom and dad needed to be sinless to give birth to the supposedly sinless Mary??
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