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david_ruiz
Guest
he point, however, is that “after much debate”, when Peter spoke “the whole assembly fell silent”; a clear indication of his authority above the other Apostles.
he point, however, is that “after much debate”, when Peter spoke “the whole assembly fell silent”; a clear indication of his authority above the other Apostles.
As regards verse 19, James was only concurring with what Peter has already decided in verses 7-12.
“When they heard this, they stopped objecting and glorified God, saying, “God has then granted life-giving repentance to the Gentiles too.”.” (v18)Up until this time they understood that if gentiles are to be counted among the people of God they must become Jews and be circumcised according to the Law. (Exd. 12:48) But based on Peter’s experience, they all understood that salvation had come to the gentiles. No conversion to Judaism was necessary.You’re right. I should have said, since the time gentiles first believed the Gospel and received the Holy Spirit. You can read about it in Acts 11.
No I am not under an impression. I know it for a fact based on the Bible – Acts 15 verse 7.You appear to be under the impression that the apostles had a private meeting over this issue.
Again, please read the Bible or probably get a new complete one as your seem to be missing some verses.The meeting took place in the church and involved the whole congregation.
Pray tell where I said that.Do you think that Peter received a revelation from God while convening in Jerusalem with the other apostles, telling him that the gentiles need not be burdened with circumcision?
Here you have fallen again to this protestant error or mangling the verses.If so, who do you suppose he was referring to when he said, “we believe”?
The question that begins with why then starts with verse 8 and 9 where he alludes to Cornelius who was given the Holy Spirit inspite of being a gentile.It seems rather ridiculous that Peter would receive this revelation then immediately rebuke the other apostles by saying, “Why, then, are you now putting God to the test by placing on the shoulders of the disciples a yoke that neither our ancestors nor we have been able to bear?
No it isn’t as I have explained aboveBut that is what you believe, isn’t it?
And that is exactly the point. If they were already clear about this there would not have been a need for them to go to Jerusalem and there would not have been a need for the first council of the Church.The church in Antioch sent them to Jerusalem concerning the question because both Paul with Barnabas and the Judaizers from Jerusalem were adamant.
And considering that the apostles where in Jerusalem, would not these Judaizers already know that circumcision was not necessary. It is obvious from this text that the matter was not settled until Peter spoke at the council.Since the Judaizers came from the church in Jerusalem, that is where they were sent to get the truth of the matter.
No, one cannot say that that was the implication. What it implies is that they took it upon themselves to preach in that manner because being Jews and considering that Jesus was a Jew they obviously thought that the law regarding circumcision remains. If you look at the decision arrived at, they still upheld some mosaic laws pertaining to “ pollution from idols, unlawful marriage, the meat of strangled animals, and blood” (verse 20)The implication would have been that they were sent to preach the Law by the authority of the apostles,
That the gentiles were overjoyed has no bearing on this discussion. The question was whether it was a set doctrine before the council that circumcision was not necessary.but Paul and Barnabas would have known that was not the case. In fact, on the way there they relayed the conversion of the gentiles and that news caused great Joy.
Yes, as pertains to the Church in Jerusalem but not the whole Church.As the bishop of the church in Jerusalem, it was incumbent upon James to set the record straight.
No, as I keep saying, the text does not bear this out. Read Acts better.It was his idea to write the letter
He was indeed the bishop of Jerusalem and he had authority in that Church. But he was none the less concurring with Peter. It was Peter who made the pronouncement that this is to be so, because it was to him that God made this revelation regarding the Gentiles. Otherwise, we would have read that after “After much debate, James spoke”.Howdy.Thanks for keeping us close to reading it all .I got a whole different view of James’s statement , than “only concurring” with Peter. Why would he speak at all ? He seems to speak as with an authority to make the final call, quite decisively , with further directions , and scriptural insight , much like a judge. Indeed ,many have said he was the president of the council , seeing that he was bishop of Jerusalem.
Yes, he did. Verse 7.What other apostles were there ,besides James (and Paul) ? It is not clear that it shows his authority over others .Certainly that he was a leader ,a first amongst equals .He did not chair over the council , nor did he issue the decree,
Did we say he was the only testator? He was the prime testator because it was to Him that God chose to reveal how to deal with the Gentiles.nor was he the only testator to God’s doings, nor was he above “scripture” that helped seal the deal .
What took James longer?What took Peter so long to speak ?
How about the possibility that he was allowing everyone to have their say?Was he not the one who received the dream ,the vision ,of going to the gentiles with God’s blessing ?
Yes, but that has nothing to do with it. What he saw in the vision was that gentiles will be admitted but the vision said nothing about circumcision. It was only when the debate arose that he would have been able to apply that vision to this particular issue of circumcision.Did he not see the Holy Spirit fall upon them at his preaching ?
Paul seems to think so but I think it was more a case of not wanting to ruffle their feathers. After all, they were commanded to preach first to the Jews.Was Peter still afraid of the Judaizers ?
Yes he was or don’t you have verse 7 as well? What is it with protestants that this verse seems to be missing from your Bibles?He should have been the first to speak , but he was not . …
Read Acts 15. If you stop chopping up verses you will realize this to be true as well.…I have heard Catholics say many things , that Peter presided over the council , that he gave the decision (pronouncement) ,
I don’t think anyone said scripture was “unauthoritative” at the council but the decision was not made based on Scripture. It was based on Peter’s speech and his appeal to the truth that we are saved by grace.that scripture was "unauthoratative "at the council.
No one doubted that Paul is an outstanding apostle. But if you really are scripturally solid in your theology, then you cannot escape the fact that Jesus continually singled out Peter. This is the way Jesus operated. If He had so wanted, He could have chosen Paul as part of the twelve but he did not. This is God’s will. This is God’s way of acting.Peter and Paul had outstanding testimony,for they were our two most outstanding apostles
Yes, first among equals. But you have it right there. FIRST.. Peter ,first among equals, and not “over” the others, in my humble opinion, and a bridge too far to gap.
You misunderstand, Dokimas.Paul wrote to the church he was instrumental in starting.
I have no problem with the idea both Peter and Paul were in Rome.
I’m confused: is your church the RCC or the CC? Some here speak forcefully that the church is the CC.
You act as though Paul and Barnabas were not sure about the Gospel they were preaching. Do you really think they thought they might have been mistaken? In his letter to the Ephesians, Paul said, “How that by revelation He made known to me the mystery (as I have briefly written already, by which, when you read, you may understand my knowledge in the mystery of Christ), which in other ages was not made known to the sons of men, as it has now been revealed by the Spirit to His holy apostles and prophets.”If they were already clear about this there would not have been a need for them to go to Jerusalem and there would not have been a need for the first council of the Church.
No I am not under an impression. I know it for a fact based on the Bible – Acts 15 verse 7. As I said before, you might need to get another Bible as this seems to have been deleted from yours.You appear to be under the impression that the apostles had a private meeting over this issue.
The fact that there was no pronouncement explains why some of the Jewish believes were troubled by gentiles not converting to Judaism. But don’t confuse that with what the apostles understood concerning gentiles. When they heard the news of the first gentile converts they rejoiced and thanked God. They did not go about telling them to be circumcised and keep the Law.“Peter in this speech was making a theological deduction based on this premise – that we are saved by grace - so as to better explain his decision to the aspostles. He was saying that since “we” (the apostles) believe that we are saved through grace, therefore it is not necessary to circumcise the gentles because they are saved by grace as well. But until that time, no one has made a definitive pronouncement regarding this. From this time on, it became doctrine.”
I have little time today so attend to the rest of your post later.You act as though Paul and Barnabas were not sure about the Gospel they were preaching. Do you really think they thought they might have been mistaken? In his letter to the Ephesians, Paul said, “How that by revelation He made known to me the mystery (as I have briefly written already, by which, when you read, you may understand my knowledge in the mystery of Christ), which in other ages was not made known to the sons of men, as it has now been revealed by the Spirit to His holy apostles and prophets.”
Paul and Barnabas were absolutely clear about what they were preaching. Why else would they have “no little dissension and debate” with the men from Jerusalem?
SteveVH;7484478:
We don’t know who was involved in “much debate”. It is not written as if someone was taking minutes of the meeting. Peter may very well have spoken during the debate. It is clear, however, that he had the last word concerning the subjection of Gentiles to Mosaic law. James’ judgment and position as to how to implement the decision was accepted. Bishops in the Church today are certainly heard as well and their advice implemented on many occasions. Witness our current Pope and his previous position.What other apostles were there ,besides James (and Paul) ? It is not clear that it shows his authority over others .Certainly that he was a leader ,a first amongst equals .He did not chair over the council , nor did he issue the decree, nor was he the only testator to God’s doings, nor was he above “scripture” that helped seal the deal .What took Peter so long to speak ? Was he not the one who received the dream ,the vision ,of going to the gentiles with God’s blessing ? Did he not see the Holy Spirit fall upon them at his preaching ? Was Peter still afraid of the Judaizers ? He should have been the first to speak , but he was not . …I have heard Catholics say many things , that Peter presided over the council , that he gave the decision (pronouncement) , that scripture was "unauthoratative "at the council. Peter and Paul had outstanding testimony,for they were our two most outstanding apostles . Peter ,first among equals, and not “over” the others, in my humble opinion, and a bridge too far to gap.
YES!! I Do! And it came to me just today. To bridge the gaps we need a bridge. How do we build a Bridge??Hello All,
It has been a LONG while since I have been here but I am back - for now… Don’t know if any of y’all will know me but I am here to help answer / ask questions while try to bridge a gap of understanding between us non-catholics and catholics.
I feel with a bit of unity we can become such a powerhouse the world has never seen and Christ’s light could shine that much brighter. But there are some big canyons that some find hard to bridge.
Do any of you ever think it will be possible to bridge the gaps?
It was Peter who made the pronouncement that this is to be so,
[/QUOTE]Yes, he did. Verse 7.
I prefer what a following thread said ,that Peter may have spoken during the dispute also ,We do not know .We do know there was "much disputing ,there was conversation ,by people ,BEFORE Peter stood up and spoke.We do not know if this was his first verbal (name removed by moderator)ut. ]As a matter of fact, we can see here an echo of what was happening at Ceasaria Philippi in Matthew 16.
Why do you insist that because we do not have your same conclusion ,we must not have read the same thing ,as if your argument is more scripturally solid. On the contrary ,it is your position that requires outside help ,from “tradition” ,not mine. I will reiterate , in God’s wisdom He was very precise in scriptural renderings of things,so as to prove the hearts of men,elst we would know all things.Read Acts 15. If you stop chopping up verses you will realize this to be true as well.
To be fair you have not , just other Catholic apologeticists,when debating sola scriptura ,and how things should be done, as in this council.I don’t think anyone said scripture was “unauthoritative” at the council
Now I feel you are picking and choosing as to why James made his pronouncement.This is a perfect example of the importance of being scriptural to provide boundaries ,even when a pope or apostle speaks.The importance of scripture(and peter and paul and james) is in the eyes of the beholder.but the decision was not made based on Scripture. It was based on Peter’s speech and his appeal to the truth that we are saved by grace.
I and many others think God did choose Paul as one the twelve ,replacing Judas.Or what ,shall drawing lots be our guiding way ?He could have chosen Paul as part of the twelve but he did not.
Again ,you pick and choose ,for will you say “equals” in authority ?Yes, first among equals. But you have it right there. FIRST
david ruiz;7490233:
AgreedWe don’t know who was involved in “much debate”. It is not written as if someone was taking minutes of the meeting. Peter may very well have spoken during the debate.
Probably, but Paul had strong testimony also of great works without circumcision. Peter’s last words , was it because they saw Peter as "pope’ ,or that his experience (vision,etc),and words of truth, and that he was a leader type that quieted them ?, His last words were that of testimony,or words “from the floor”.The last words on mosaic law came from James.It is clear, however, that he had the last word concerning the subjection of Gentiles to Mosaic law.
Yes ,but is the pope today a testator ,a witness as Peter was ,or does the pope make the judgment and last call as James did .Not sure. You at least say James made the judgement , but it contradicts that Peter had the last word on it ,in my opinion.James’ judgment and position as to how to implement the decision was accepted. Bishops in the Church today are certainly heard as well and their advice implemented on many occasions. Witness our current Pope and his previous position.
Here Protestants are, as usual, reading Acts as if the Church who wrote it 20 centuries ago didn’t know what happened at the Council of Jerusalem and what it meant.
Jim Dandy;7499466:
It is!Hello Jim Dandy. Shall I say , here Catholics, as usual, are reading Acts as if the Church in Acts is the same Roman Catholic Church 20 centuries later ?
The Council at Jerusalem set the pattern for all of the Councils that followed, so by looking at more recent Councils, we can see how the Council of Jerusalem must have been.![]()
david ruiz;7500707:
Howdy jmcrae.If only it were so .Not all elements of the Body are at the councils anymore , ever since one “bishop” began declaring things that were not present at Jerusalem, like said “bishop” being universal , supreme, having the last word. The exact opposite of a humble Peter. But alas, there is enough in scripture , and certainly in history to shape your theory… Let me know next time there is a council, when bishops from all elements of the Church of Christ are present, and testimony is heard of present day Holy Spirit activity , with scriptural boundaries (not tradition), and all bishops are equal in commission and authority but unique in experience and anointing, of which any one could be “president” of the council, and the outcome is one of consensus , not dictation from one , however well esteemed. Please let me know.It is!
The Council at Jerusalem set the pattern for all of the Councils that followed, so by looking at more recent Councils, we can see how the Council of Jerusalem must have been.![]()
jmcrae;7500717:
There were both Protestants and Jews present at the Second Vatican Council - as observers, of course, since they are not in full communion with the Church. But the demographics of the Second Vatican Council were certainly very similar to those of the Council of Jerusalem - Jews, Christians in schism, and all those in full communion with Peter - and Protestants have always been invited to attend Councils, throughout the existence of Protestantism - ever since Trent, although Vatican II was the first time any of them actually showed up.Howdy jmcrae.If only it were so .Not all elements of the Body are at the councils anymore
You would find The Document of Vatican II by Walter M. Abbott, S. J. to be interesting reading, I think.Let me know next time there is a council, when bishops from all elements of the Church of Christ are present, and testimony is heard of present day Holy Spirit activity , with scriptural boundaries (not tradition), and all bishops are equal in commission and authority but unique in experience and anointing, of which any one could be “president” of the council, and the outcome is one of consensus , not dictation from one , however well esteemed. Please let me know.![]()