Juan,
The simple answer is that there is no Scripture that supports Mary having no other children. However, while there are Scriptures that suggest Mary may have had other children, there is no Scripture that positively confirms siblings.
So I ask you this, What difference does it make if Mary had other children with Joseph after the birth of Jesus?
It would not be a sin as they were legally married according to Jewish law.
It would not change who Jesus was nor deter his mission.
It would not change God not His sovereign nature.
So what difference does it make?
As a Catholic, I have asked that question to myself many times. Isn’t it sort of gnarly that the Catholic Church insists that Mary has the charism of perpetual virginity (before, during, and after the birth of Jesus)?
After years of thought and some reading of scripture, and viewing many posts on the subject, I have concluded that it is very important and relevant that Mary has perpetual virginity.
A lot of controversy swirls around Is 7:14 (or thereabouts) and whether the word there should be translated “maiden” “young woman” or “virgin”.
IF you don’t want to take it from a Catholic, take it from the Ryrie Study Bible (a gift from my evangelical relatives) comment on Is 7:14 is that word is used elsewhere in the sense of virgin. So, the use of that word there and in Mt’s account of the nativity is entirely appropriate, to be virgin.
Now, in Is 7:14, that birth is supposed to be a sign. Now, focus on the idea of “sign” rather than on the virgin part. Would it be a “sign” if a maiden bore a child? No, that’s pretty common. Doesn’t seem like anything special to me.
But, if you acceed to the prediction that a “virgin shall ***conceive and bear ***a son”
then you have to look for a woman who is a virgin when she conceives and when she bears a son. Now, that’s a little bit harder to imagine, isn’t it? Wouldn’t that be a sign if such a thing were to happen?
Mary’s virginity – her perpetual virginity – is a sign that Jesus is the Messiah.
If you refute this with a wave of a hand as being improbable, then you have to dismiss that Is 7:14 is a prophecy of anything, right? But, that goes against a lot of Catholic and Protestant scripture interpretation. And, again, what kind of a sign could we imagine that an ordinary “maiden” would conceive and bear a child? That’s a pretty ordinary occurrence, isn’t it, even today?
IF you deny the idea, then you have to dismiss the Mt account of the nativity of Jesus, because THAT is the way that he takes it.
And, then as some have said above, there is no conclusive evidence that Mary and Joseph had children, or even any relations.
Dr. Tim Gray has recently published a short book on Lection Divina, and I think it was in there someplace that he gave some passing observations about a couple things relevant to this discussion.
At the end of Genesis, we read about the well-known Joseph who was the son of Jacob (Israel, right?). And what do we see as a prominent feature of Joseph’s character except that he was restrained from having relations with Pharoah’s wife? So, look at the parallel in the Gospel of Mt, that we have Joseph who is also a son of a guy named Jacob, and who has a chaste relationship with Mary who is the perpetual virgin. So, through typology, there is some validation of the Catholic viewpoint.
The least that one can say is that the Catholic viewpoint is contrived or lacks plausibility. It just becomes fodder for the ongoing sniping of Protestants against Catholics.