A
Al_Moritz
Guest
Doubt based on what evidence? Or based on your preconceived notions, dogmas of your mind?I highly doubt that that is the reason for your family issues.
Doubt based on what evidence? Or based on your preconceived notions, dogmas of your mind?I highly doubt that that is the reason for your family issues.
Just based on your wording.Doubt based on what evidence? Or based on your preconceived notions, dogmas of your mind?
What the heck does “being the case” even mean then?What don’t you get about the notion that pure nothingness does not have to exist to nonetheless “be the case”?
I doubt that’s possible.I am talking about pure nothingness as an alterative to existence itself.
It might, how do you know it doesn’t?I am not saying pure nothingness is the case or might ever be the case. Obviously, pure nothingness is not the case nor could it ever be the case. But, that doesn’t mean that pure nothingness is not a viable option instead of existence.
Except that my assumption perfectly matches reality. So its got that going for it, which is nice.I think you are stuck in your mindset of believing everything must be necessary, and therefore, pure nothingness could not be a viable option. You assume too much.![]()
I reject that premise as an unsupported assertion.
- The theory that something exists is less simple than the theory that nothing exists.
I’m comfortable with the reason for existence being unexplainable.But since we are at pains to say what this inequality amounts to, it seems like we have no explanation for why anything exists at all.
With the tacit assumption that nothingness is possible in the first place.What seems to suggest 2 is that a theory that something exists implies more kinds of things exist than does the theory that nothing exists.
Not at all.Your proposed solution to this paradoxical situation is a theory that involves agent-causation, where an all-powerful will that necessarily exists can bring otherwise improbable things into existence.
Perhaps it is inevitable. You have yet to address this.Not randomness? Then what? Why must our particular universe be the only one that could ever have been?
We have the exact same amount of information pointing towards it being inevitable as we do for it being one of two undefined probabilities (to paraphrase your proof). That amount is none.Why inevitable? That’s just another word used to say our particular universe is the only one possible. I can address that easily. There doesn’t seem to be any good reason to claim that only our universe can become Real besides your faith that there aren’t any other universes. You don’t know that.
You can’t expect rules that happen within the Universe to apply to the Universe as a whole.Indeed, it is self-evident to me that if there is one universe, there could be others. If we know one thing about the material universe, it’s that if there’s one - there’s more than one, e.g. planets, stars, black holes, galaxies, even people. That’s common sense.![]()
Another example of “only comprehensible as a concept” is a square circle. The existence of non-existence is a logical contradiction.Pure nothingness is not a logical impossibility. Pure nothingness is quite logical. It is only your insistence that pure nothingness take on the attribute of its opposite, i.e. existence, that makes it appear illogical. It is your thinking that’s illogical. That’s my point.
Pure nothingness is not existence. Pure nothingness is where existence itself is not REAL. Sure, you can never visualize pure nothingness without appealing to an impermissible attribute of existence, but your inability to visualize pure nothingness doesn’t mean it’s illogical. Pure nothingness is only comprehensible as a concept - and as a concept, it’s not illogical nor impossible.
Things just don’t work that way.Why can’t I expect rules that happen within the Universe to apply to the Universe as a whole?
Well, spacetime as a whole behaves neither like time by itself, nor like space by itself.What do you know about the Universe as a whole that the rest of us don’t?
Speculation is not a valid answer.Perhaps it is inevitable. You have yet to address this.
But it is a valid counter-point to a proof.Speculation is not a valid answer.
Now all you have to do is apply your reasoning to gods…An apple may not behave like a seed, but the apple has many seeds. The apple tree may not behave like an apple, but the apple tree has many apples. The field may not behave like an apple tree, but the field has many apple trees. The countryside may not behave like a field, but the countryside has many fields. The country may not behave like a countryside, but the country has many countrysides. The Earth may not behave like a country, but the Earth has many countries. The Solar System may not behave like Earth, but the solar system has many planets. The Galaxy may not behave like a solar system, but the galaxy has many solar systems. The Galaxy Cluster may not behave like a galaxy, but the Galaxy cluster has many galaxies. The Universe may not behave like a Galaxy Cluster, but the Universe has many Galaxy Clusters. Now, you wonder why I take the possibility of other Universes seriously?![]()
You say “I am arguing existence not being REAL”. Seems incoherent. If non-existence is real then every bizarre fantasy ever dreamed up would have to be counted real and words would lose all meaning.Of course existence of non-existence is a logical contradiction. But, that’s not what I am arguing. I am arguing existence not being REAL. You cannot prove that existence must necessarily be the case. You only presume this because existence is REAL. You are failing to see the other viable option - that existence did not necessarily have to be REAL. You and I are really only arguing about this one discrete point - “Is existence itself necessary?” I say, “no”. You say, “yes”. I point to pure nothingness as a viable option to show that existence itself is not necessary. You cannot point to anything to prove me wrong, except your assumption that existence is necessary.
Twas you who forced scientists out of your corner when you said “Arrogant scientists redefining well understood terms to suit their own philosophy! What a lie!” (post #76).I like how you attempt to bring ALL THE WORLD’S scientists into your corner.
So point me to the amazon.com entry for your bestselling book. Also, please cite your peer-reviewed paper, and a few of the citations it has attracted on Google Scholar.How many of these scientists know of my proof?
I’m not sure I’m following you. Can you expand on that?Because there is only one set of all possible all inclusive states of existence. Hence, there can be only one Constraint.
Not it’s really not actually.But it is a valid counter-point to a proof.
Um, that’s why I qualified my statement with “perhaps”…Not it’s really not actually.
It would be more honest to merely say you don’t know.
Ah. Fair enough.Um, that’s why I qualified my statement with “perhaps”…
I don’t know as any cosmologist is trying to prove that, although I guess maybe some Hindus might be hopeful.Certain scientists and Cosmologists massage the meaning of " nothing or nothingness " in such a way so as to make it seemingly impossible to prove the existence of God by means of an a priori argument based on the observation of the natural world and the phenomena in it.
This is a facetious argument. Thomas Aquinas defines " nothingness " as the absence of any created substance. This would mean the absence of all forms of matter, whether of waves, energy, ultimate particles, or any other thing or " law ", outside of God’s own eternal Being. Modern scientific skeptics have intentionally caused confusion over the meaning of " nothingness " precisely to attempt to " prove " that the universe has always existed in some form.
I do believe that Stephen Hawking, and many like him do attempt to do that…I don’t know as any cosmologist is trying to prove that, although I guess maybe some Hindus might be hopeful
I don’t think Thomas ever used the term " empty space. " He did speak of motion in a void when discussing the opinions of Aristotle and the Muslim philosophers. But he never gave an opinion of his own about the actual existence of the void that these men spoke of. And neither these men nor Thomas ever addressed the question in terms of " created substance." So we can only say that if Thomas had private thoughts about the actual existence of a " void, " he would have said that it was a part of the universe and so was created along with the rest of the universe. Now he did speak of the " heavens " and celestial movement in the heavens, but he never gave an opinion of the actual composition of the heavens except in reference to the heavenly bodies and their movements. But those were good questions.Does Thomas think empty space is a “created substance”?
Correct. Very good.My understanding is that Thomas argues it’s impossible to prove that the universe is temporal as Genesis claims, or eternal as his hero Aristotle maintains. But Thomas overcomes this by arguing that the universe is continuously caused by his unmoved mover. So even if it does turn out to be eternal it is still created, and either way faith in a Creator is not absurd, QED
Remember, he was writing for the educated class, most of whom were clerics. So we would have to restrict this comment to this class. In which case we would have to say that, until the 17th century most of the educated class would have agreed. He was not " hedging " his bets, he was speaking philosophically and was showing that whether one was speaking as a philosopher or was addressing truths of faith, one must conclude that God created the universe, that there was a true creation under either scenario…It would seem his sophisticated argument never satisfied many Christians. Rather than proving the Genesis account he hedges his bets, and 400 years later some people got really upset with Galileo for challenging not just the literal reading of Genesis but also Aristotle’s celestial spheres.
Not indignant about new ideas except when they contradict what we know through Revelation. And Aristotle’s and Thomas’ arguments are just fine when explained properly. Though one must interpret Aristotle through Thomas. Taken by itself, Aristotle’s argument does not hold up given that his God had no direct contact with the universe…So getting indignant about new ideas is nothing new, and with the physics we now know, neither Aristotle’s nor Thomas’ arguments from motion (which I think reach opposite conclusions) make much sense anymore,
But Lemaître approaches this from what I think is a new angle.
Not sure what you mean but I agree with Lemaitre’. I think he said that science and philosophy and theology must stick to their own territory. The only exception he would make would be that if anything in either philosophy or science contradicted Revelation, the offending proposition would be wrong because Faith is trumps.He says “God cannot be reduced to the role of a scientific hypothesis. …] It does not mean that cosmology has no meaning for philosophy. Philosophy and theology, when kept in isolation from scientific thought, either change into an outdated self-enclosed system, or become a dangerous ideology."
Here I disagree. When the materialist concludes that there is no " transcendental Being, " he has stepped into the science of philosophy and theology. He has made a conclusion science cannot make. Since this conclusion violates both the truths of philosophy and Faith, it is wrong. And it is wrong because the science is wrong - somewhere. And we would have to say it is wrong precisely when the scientist tries to redefine the words " nothing " and " nothingness. " Further, it is wrong because all his arguments are conditionals. He is making hypothetical suppositions. And there is nothing conclusive about a hypothetical or conditional statement.Then: “As far as I can see, such a theory [his big bang] remains entirely outside any metaphysical or religious question. It leaves the materialist free to deny any transcendental Being.
Have no idea what you mean here. But we are still talking about something that cannot be proven because it cannot be seen or measured - as Lemaitre’ says.He may keep, for the bottom of space-time, the same attitude of mind he has been able to adopt for events occurring in nonsingular places in space-time
For the believer, it removes any attempt at familiarity with God, as were Laplace’s “flick” or Jean’s “finger [of God agitating the ether]” consonant, ****
Your meaning here is obscure. I don’t see the connection. And Laplace’s remarks are nothing but his personal opinion, it had nothing to do with science - or philosophy. Of course it violates the truths of Faith.
“it is consonant with the wording of Isaiah’s speaking of a “Hidden God”, hidden even in the beginning of creation.
Not sure what you mean by " hidden. " If you are saying that God cannot be clearly known through the things he has made, then that would be wrong, as St. Paul says and as the Psalmist says in many places. Even God, himself, tells us that in many places in the Old Testament. For example, in Job he famously remarks, " …Where you there when I ( did this or that, etc. ).".So Lemaître poses the question: Although we know far more than Aristotle or Thomas, God is still hidden. If we knew twice as much, would God still hide? If we knew all there is to know, would God still hide?
So who’s testing God? And it is right to get upset with modern cosmologists who make comments they cannot back up and which contradict Faith. I am not upset with Galileo, I am upset with what how modern scientific apologists have blown the Galileo incident out of all proportion to its significance.I think the obvious answer is yes, God will not be tested. In which case there’s no more reason to get hot under the collar with modern cosmology than there was to get upset with Galileo.