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invisible_man
Guest
I was referring to the date…1854 and Saint Bernedette. I don’t think that it had such importance before that date. If so, my mistake. And I do not believe that other religions use the phrase as Catholics do.Indeed, such as the ancient Syrian Fathers, even using the word “immaculate”, as well as Origen referring to her as “immaculate of the immaculate”.
As we have seen, invisible man said that he “may be wrong”, and he is indeed wrong. The word “immaculate” is not a Catholic word originating with Saint Bernadette, an LDS letter written by Harold B. Lee, cited by invisible man himself, even used the phrase “Immaculate Conception” to refer to the birth of Christ (thereby disproving his own statement that no other religion uses the word), and as I had mentioned, “immaculate” is a word that is used many times in the English language, as a simple Google search would demonstrate. Saint Bernadette did not originate the word nor the doctrine, both existed centuries before her, and invisible man will not be able to provide evidence to the contrary.
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