Just pointing out that it certainly is implied in the post by Invisibleman if you simply look at what the word immaculate means. It’s not an uncommon misunderstanding when people hear “Immaculate Conception that they think of Jesus conception:. I have had to correct Catholics on this very point. But when you apply “immaculate” to the virgin conception of Jesus then sexual intercourse is by default a not clean, it is a fault. Why does this man feel he needs to incorporate the phrase"Immaculate Conception” in his conversation? And why provide an answer in the form of a letter that so obviously says sexual intercourse is dirty, dirty is after all the opposite of immaculate.
This probably has more to do with the LDS penchant for adopting terms that have no meaning in their own theology but they for some reason feel compelled to incorporate into conversation. There was an LDS poster here who tried to say that Jesus was the the “Only Begotten Son” and that it had nothing to do with being the only begotten son of the father in the flesh but that somehow Jesus was the"only begotten son" prior to this life. This flys in the face of LDS teaching that we (us, Jesus, Satan) are all the offspring of heavenly father, how can Jesus be the “only begotten son” when there are millions of men who are begotten sons of the heavenly father? This use of “immaculate conception” and “only begotten son” by LDS looks like “oh that’s cool, and you know we believe it too cuz you know you really believe the same things we do” when obviously we aren’t even close in our beliefs. .