How do protestants explain the 1500 year gap.

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Thanks for the direct and thoughtful answer!

You have, I believe, addressed Denise’s question and the OP. I think you are saying, in essence, that there is a “gap” of about 1,000 years where the visible Church (the CC) stopped teaching the full gospel, while there was some remnant of the “True” Church within it.
Yes. That’s what I was saying. I don’t consider any institutional church the one “true” church. Rather, there are individuals within and outside of the institutional churches who carry on the “truth”. I consider that to be the situation during the 1500 year gap we speak of here and always up to now.
 
Frankly, if you can’t see God’s and His adopted children in the Catholic Church, you should look much closer and do so with a prayer-fill hearth. The Catholic church is the largest charity in the world.

As an aside, the Catholic church wouldn’t be so large unless is did have a focus on missions.
Thank you for putting that so well.
 
Yes. That’s what I was saying. I don’t consider any institutional church the one “true” church. Rather, there are individuals within and outside of the institutional churches who carry on the “truth”. I consider that to be the situation during the 1500 year gap we speak of here and always up to now.
Regarding individuals within, and outside of the institutional churches who carry on the truth, as you have stated: Is there a way to identify those truths, shared by both those folks within and outside the institutional churches? If so could you explain? 🙂
 
Frankly, if you can’t see God’s and His adopted children in the Catholic Church, you should look much closer and do so with a prayer-fill hearth. The Catholic church is the largest charity in the world.

As an aside, the Catholic church wouldn’t be so large unless is did have a focus on missions.
👍
 
Regarding individuals within, and outside of the institutional churches who carry on the truth, as you have stated: Is there a way to identify those truths, shared by both those folks within and outside the institutional churches? If so could you explain? 🙂
I assume that both you and I believe that the bible is the inspired word of God. The truth comes from the reading of the word of God under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit. Even if you’re not a believer, but are truly seeking God, he’s promised that he will show you the truth that is presented. I’m not talking about understanding the meaning of every verse in the Bible, but being shown what is necessary for salvation. Further understanding comes through regular communing with him and study of his word. I think most of us die without being sure of the meaning of every verse in the Bible. Anyway, the “body of Christ” has always only consisted of these true believers, who have been present on the earth since Jesus’ time - true believers being those who have faith in Christ and a true desire to do his will, whether Catholic, Protestant or whatever.
 
Maybe you can should allow Lek to speak for him or herself. Doesn’t Lek have just as much a right to an opinion as you guys? What are you afraid of? That Lek might disagree with you? He probably won’t, but we’ll just have to wait and see.
:confused:
 
There were no denominations in the first century - right? Therefore the Catholic Church to which Ignatius belonged, was not a denomination, but merely the church? :

I think I understand your perspective. The Roman Catholic Church sprang up in the fourth or fifth century - correct? Where was the true church founded by God, from the fourth or fifth century to the 16th century Protestant reformation?
There were no denominations in the first century - right? Therefore the Catholic Church to which Ignatius belonged, was not a denomination, but merely the church?
Of course there were factions. God even says there is going to be factions in the church. In fact if you read church history you will see the early church was loaded with schisms and factionalism.
I think I understand your perspective. The Roman Catholic Church sprang up in the fourth or fifth century - correct? Where was the true church founded by God, from the fourth or fifth century to the 16th century Protestant reformation?
No, that’s not my perspective. The true church is where the sacraments are administered and where the gospel is preached, in this the true church has existed since the beginning. There is no 1500 year gap. That error crept into the Roman Catholic Church necessitated the Reformation.
 
Of course there were factions. God even says there is going to be factions in the church. In fact if you read church history you will see the early church was loaded with schisms and factionalism.

No, that’s not my perspective. The true church is where the sacraments are administered and where the gospel is preached, in this the true church has existed since the beginning. There is no 1500 year gap. That error crept into the Roman Catholic Church necessitated the Reformation.
Sounds like you are saying that the reformation restored truth, while the Catholic Church continues to teach error? OK. :)Personally, I felt utterly lost as a former Protestant, in terms of doctrinal truth. I too do not believe that there was a 1500 year gap. Jesus founded the Catholic Church in the 1st century and His church has existed in every century, and continues to teach doctrinal truth, thanks to God’s ineffable guidance. I find it impossible to believe that Jesus failed to protect His Catholic church (“I will build my church…”) from doctrinal errors, which would translate to a victory for Satan and company. Jesus promised two thing: the preservation of truth, so that every generation could partake, and the fact that scandals would be unavoidable. I believe Him. 👍
 
While I’m going off topic, and Catholics are quite able to defend themselves, a couple of comments about this.
=CaliLobo;12184741]
Sex scandal?
The sex scandal is not about the Church. It is about human sin, of individuals. While the Church should be taken to task for this, the fact is in the secular progressive world, such as public schools, the problem is far more pervasive, in part because the secular progressive world lacks or even persecutes the curbing effect of the Law of scripture.
Crusades? Meddling into the politics of Europe? Conquest of the Americas?
And modern Catholics are responsible for these how?
Improper catechesis?
The CC has no corner on this. :o
Oppression of the rights of gays and women? Oppressing the sexual and reproductive freedom of couples?
Ridiculous. There is no oppression of gay or women’s rights. None. There is no oppression of sexual and reproductive freedom of couples either. There is, however, a moral standing up by the Catholic Church against the ultimate oppression of the lives of unborn human beings. And to that, I as a non-Catholic, give :clapping:
Administering sacraments while neglecting community?
Of all the Christian communions, the CC is perhaps the most active in the community. But then, the secular progressive government, by trying to coerce them into providing chemical abortion services, are trying (I believe intentionally) to force them out of providing hospitals, schools, and the like.
Where is Christ in the Catholic Church? Please don’t say he’s in the host. People want to feel God’s presence and they won’t feel him just because the Vatican says he’s in the host.
They ought to. There is no more a physical presence than in the sacrament. Every time an unborn life is saved by the efforts of the CC, Christ is there. Every time the CC provides hospital or education care in needy communities, Christ is there. Every time a meal is provided, Christ is there.
When the Son of Man comes in his glory, and all the angels with him, then he will sit on his glorious throne. 32Before him will be gathered all the nations, and he will separate people one from another as a shepherd separates the sheep from the goats. 33And he will place the sheep on his right, but the goats on the left. 34Then the King will say to those on his right, ‘Come, you who are blessed by my Father, inherit the kingdom prepared for you from the foundation of the world. 35For I was hungry and you gave me food, I was thirsty and you gave me drink, I was a stranger and you welcomed me, 36I was naked and you clothed me, I was sick and you visited me, I was in prison and you came to me.’ 37Then the righteous will answer him, saying, ‘Lord, when did we see you hungry and feed you, or thirsty and give you drink? 38And when did we see you a stranger and welcome you, or naked and clothe you? 39And when did we see you sick or in prison and visit you?’ 40And the King will answer them, ‘Truly, I say to you, as you did it to one of the least of these my brothers,f you did it to me.’
God bless the Catholic Church.

Jon
 
According to you, they added doctrine? OK. 👍 Who is Iggy? LOL…😃

The ECF’s led me to the Catholic Church. Examples of the ECFs promoting liturgical Protestantism?

Is it safe to say that Ignatius of Antioch belonged to the 1st-century Catholic Church, which is the present-day Catholic Church, although altered doctrinally speaking, as per your belief? “Wherever the Bishop appears, there let the multitude of the people be; just as where Christ Jesus is, there is the catholic church”?
The ECF’s led me to the Catholic Church. Examples of the ECFs promoting liturgical Protestantism?
Sure. Here is Mathetes re. Substitution.
But when our wickedness had reached its height, and it had been clearly shown that its reward, punishment and death, was impending over us; and when the time had come which God had before appointed for manifesting His own kindness and power, how the one love of God, through exceeding regard for men, did not regard us with hatred, nor thrust us away, nor remember our iniquity against us, but showed great long-suffering, and bore with us, He Himself took on Him the burden of our iniquities, He gave His own Son as a ransom for us, the holy One for transgressors, the blameless One for the wicked, the righteous One for the unrighteous, the incorruptible One for the corruptible, the immortal One for them that are mortal. For what other thing was capable of covering our sins than His righteousness? By what other one was it possible that we, the wicked and ungodly, could be justified, than by the only Son of God? O sweet exchange! O unsearchable operation! O benefits surpassing all expectation! that the wickedness of many should be hid in a single righteous One, and that the righteousness of One should justify many transgressors!

Mathetes to Diognetes chapter 9, Schaff, Philip. The Ante-Nicene Fathers. electronic ed. Garland, TX: Galaxie Software, 2000.
*

Also Chrysostom clearly speaks against the bishop or Rome or Peter himself being the ruler over the entire Church.

He speaks of the bishop of Antioch, referring to him as another Peter. Where all bishops have the authority of Peter.

In speaking of S. Peter, the recollection of another Peter has come to me, the common father and teacher, who has inherited his prowess, and also obtained his chair. For this is the one great privilege of our city, Antioch, that it received the leader of the apostles as its teacher in the beginning. For it was right that she who was first adorned with the name of Christians, before the whole world, should receive the first of the apostles as her pastor. But though we received him as teacher, we did not retain him to the end, but gave him up to royal Rome. Or rather we did retain him to the end, for though we do not retain the body of Peter, we do retain the faith of Peter, and retaining the faith of Peter we have Peter (On the Inscription of the Acts, II. Cited by E. Giles, Documents Illustrating Papal Authority (London: SPCK, 1952), p. 168. Cf. Chapman, Studies on the Early Papacy, p. 96).

In the modern Roman Catholic reckoning, is any other bishop besides the Roman one to be considered “another Peter” or equal to Peter?

I think Chrysostom referred to the bishop of Antioch as another Peter because he was the successor of Peter, AND all bishops and apostles had the keys as possessed by Peter. Observe what he wrote about John.

*“For the son of thunder, the beloved of Christ, the pillar of the Churches throughout the world, who holds the keys of heaven, who drank the cup of Christ, and was baptized with His baptism, who lay upon his Master’s bosom, with much confidence…” (NPNF Vol. XIV, p. 1)
*
All apostles and bishops have the keys are can be considered the pillar of the Churches throughout the world, and not the Pope alone.

Read what Chrysostom writes about the Council of Jerusalem:

“This (James) was bishop, as they say, and therefore he speaks last…There was no arrogance in the Church. After Peter Paul speaks, and none silences him: James waits patiently; not starts up (for the next word). Great the orderliness (of the proceedings). No word speaks John here, no word the other Apostles, but held their peace, for James was invested with the chief rule, and think it no hardship. So clean was their soul from love of glory. And after that they had held their peace, James answered. Peter indeed spoke more strongly, but James here more mildly; for thus it behooves one in high authority, to leave what is unpleasant for others to say, while he himself appears in the milder part…” (NPNF Vol. XI, p. 205, 207)

I thought according to Catholic apologists Peter had the “chief rule” even at the Jerusalem council?

There are many more in fact the Didache charges Christian congregations to appoint for themselves honorable bishops. Just as Protestants do today.

*Therefore, appoint for yourselves bishops and deacons worthy of the Lord, men meek, and not lovers of money, 1 Timothy 3:4 and truthful and proven; for they also render to you the service of prophets and teachers. Despise them not therefore, for they are your honoured ones, together with the prophets and teachers. And reprove one another, not in anger, but in peace, as you have it in the Gospel; Matthew 18:15-17 but to every one that acts amiss against another, let no one speak, nor let him hear anything from you until he repents. But your prayers and alms and all your deeds so do, as you have it in the Gospel of our Lord. Didache 15
*
When was the last time a Catholic congregation or diocese appointed its own bishop. When was the last time an individual Catholic had any say at all in who lead them?
 
When was the last time a Catholic congregation or diocese appointed its own bishop. When was the last time an individual Catholic had any say at all in who lead them?
If I remember correctly, a few sees still possess some of their ancient rights. I believe that Cologne’s cathedral chapter elects the Archbishop, who is then ratified by the Pope. I think a few other dioceses may have this right (perhaps elsewhere within the former Kingdom of Prussia)…
 
Harkonnen Sure. Here is Mathetes re. Substitution.
But when our wickedness had reached its height, and it had been clearly shown that its reward, punishment and death, was impending over us; and when the time had come which God had before appointed for manifesting His own kindness and power, how the one love of God, through exceeding regard for men, did not regard us with hatred, nor thrust us away, nor remember our iniquity against us, but showed great long-suffering, and bore with us, He Himself took on Him the burden of our iniquities, He gave His own Son as a ransom for us, the holy One for transgressors, the blameless One for the wicked, the righteous One for the unrighteous, the incorruptible One for the corruptible, the immortal One for them that are mortal. For what other thing was capable of covering our sins than His righteousness? By what other one was it possible that we, the wicked and ungodly, could be justified, than by the only Son of God? O sweet exchange! O unsearchable operation! O benefits surpassing all expectation! that the wickedness of many should be hid in a single righteous One, and that the righteousness of One should justify many transgressors!
Sounds both Protestant and Catholic. 👍
Also Chrysostom clearly speaks against the bishop or Rome or Peter himself being the ruler over the entire Church.
He speaks of the bishop of Antioch, referring to him as another Peter. Where all bishops have the authority of Peter.
What?:confused: Chrysostom was a major part of my conversion to the CC - 90 Passages on Peter from St. John Chrysostom:

philvaz.com/apologetics/num52.htm?pagewanted=all
 
Harkonnen Sure. Here is Mathetes re. Substitution.

Sounds both Protestant and Catholic. 👍

What?:confused: Chrysostom was a major part of my conversion to the CC - 90 Passages on Peter from St. John Chrysostom:

philvaz.com/apologetics/num52.htm?pagewanted=all
Do you agree with Chrysostom that Jesus had to rebuke his mother out of concern for the salvation of her soul?
  1. It was then from this motive that He said in this place, Woman, what have I to do with you? and also for another reason not less pressing. What was that? It was, that His miracles might not be suspected. The request ought to have come from those who needed, not from His mother. And why so? Because what is done at the request of one’s friends, great though it be, often causes offense to the spectators; but when they make the request who have the need, the miracle is free from suspicion, the praise unmixed, the benefit great. So if some excellent physician should enter a house where there were many sick, and be spoken to by none of the patients or their relations, but be directed only by his own mother, he would be suspected and disliked by the sufferers, nor would any of the patients or their attendants deem him able to exhibit anything great or remarkable. And so this was a reason why He rebuked her on that occasion, saying, Woman, what have I to do with you? instructing her for the future not to do the like; because, though He was careful to honor His mother, yet He cared much more for the salvation of her soul, and for the doing good to the many, for which He took upon Him the flesh. -Homily on the Gospel of John, 21.
 
House Harkonnen
In speaking of S. Peter, the recollection of another Peter has come to me, the common father and teacher, who has inherited his prowess, and also obtained his chair. For this is the one great privilege of our city, Antioch, that it received the leader of the apostles as its teacher in the beginning. For it was right that she who was first adorned with the name of Christians, before the whole world, should receive the first of the apostles as her pastor. But though we received him as teacher, we did not retain him to the end, but gave him up to royal Rome. Or rather we did retain him to the end, for though we do not retain the body of Peter, we do retain the faith of Peter, and retaining the faith of Peter we have Peter (On the Inscription of the Acts, II. Cited by E. Giles, Documents Illustrating Papal Authority (London: SPCK, 1952), p. 168. Cf. Chapman, Studies on the Early Papacy, p. 96).
👍
In the modern Roman Catholic reckoning, is any other bishop besides the Roman one to be considered “another Peter” or equal to Peter?
I think Chrysostom referred to the bishop of Antioch as another Peter because he was the successor of Peter, AND all bishops and apostles had the keys as possessed by Peter. Observe what he wrote about John.
No, to your question. Covered Chrysostom…👍
“For the son of thunder, the beloved of Christ, the pillar of the Churches throughout the world, who holds the keys of heaven, who drank the cup of Christ, and was baptized with His baptism, who lay upon his Master’s bosom, with much confidence…” (NPNF Vol. XIV, p. 1)
All apostles and bishops have the keys are can be considered the pillar of the Churches throughout the world, and not the Pope alone.
Let’s for the moment, say that you are right: do any of these bishops who hold the keys, belong to a Protestant Church?

Similar to Cyprian who stated that all bishops are, what St. Peter is, is merely a statement of the ontological nature of the episcopate. It was not a statement on the succession of Peter’s primacy (which even Cyprian recognized belonged to the bishop of Rome).

St. Cyprian on the Church and the Papacy

“…they dare even to set sail…to the chair of Peter and the principal Church [at Rome], in which sacerdotal unity has its source…whose faith was praised by the preaching Apostle, and among whom it is not possible for perfidy [errors or perversion of faith] to have entrance.” (Epistle 59:14)
 
Do you agree with Chrysostom that Jesus had to rebuke his mother out of concern for the salvation of her soul?
  1. It was then from this motive that He said in this place, Woman, what have I to do with you? and also for another reason not less pressing. What was that? It was, that His miracles might not be suspected. The request ought to have come from those who needed, not from His mother. And why so? Because what is done at the request of one’s friends, great though it be, often causes offense to the spectators; but when they make the request who have the need, the miracle is free from suspicion, the praise unmixed, the benefit great. So if some excellent physician should enter a house where there were many sick, and be spoken to by none of the patients or their relations, but be directed only by his own mother, he would be suspected and disliked by the sufferers, nor would any of the patients or their attendants deem him able to exhibit anything great or remarkable. And so this was a reason why He rebuked her on that occasion, saying, Woman, what have I to do with you? instructing her for the future not to do the like; because, though He was careful to honor His mother, yet He cared much more for the salvation of her soul, and for the doing good to the many, for which He took upon Him the flesh.* -Homily on the Gospel of John, 21.
No, which is why we, as Catholics, do not defer to any one church leader or early church father. We defer to Ecumenical Councils + the Petrine Office. Therefore, you and I Cherry-picking ECFs is kind of pointless.👍
 
House Harkonnen
Read what Chrysostom writes about the Council of Jerusalem:
“This (James) was bishop, as they say, and therefore he speaks last…There was no arrogance in the Church. After Peter Paul speaks, and none silences him: James waits patiently; not starts up (for the next word). Great the orderliness (of the proceedings). No word speaks John here, no word the other Apostles, but held their peace, for James was invested with the chief rule, and think it no hardship. So clean was their soul from love of glory. And after that they had held their peace, James answered. Peter indeed spoke more strongly, but James here more mildly; for thus it behooves one in high authority, to leave what is unpleasant for others to say, while he himself appears in the milder part…” (NPNF Vol. XI, p. 205, 207)
I thought according to Catholic apologists Peter had the “chief rule” even at the Jerusalem council?
James was the bishop of Jerusalem, as per tradition…and therefore James was invested with the chief rule of that city. Peter, of the entire Catholic Church!👍🙂
 
👍

No, to your question. Covered Chrysostom…👍

Let’s for the moment, say that you are right: do any of these bishops who hold the keys, belong to a Protestant Church?

Similar to Cyprian who stated that all bishops are, what St. Peter is, is merely a statement of the ontological nature of the episcopate. It was not a statement on the succession of Peter’s primacy (which even Cyprian recognized belonged to the bishop of Rome).

St. Cyprian on the Church and the Papacy

“…they dare even to set sail…to the chair of Peter and the principal Church [at Rome], in which sacerdotal unity has its source…whose faith was praised by the preaching Apostle, and among whom it is not possible for perfidy [errors or perversion of faith] to have entrance.” (Epistle 59:14)
Cyprian is one of my favorite early Protestants as well.
The Lord saith unto Peter, I say unto thee, (saith He,) that thou art Peter, and upon this rock I will build My Church, and the gates of Hell shall not prevail against it. And I will give unto thee the keys of the kingdom of heaven, and whatsoever thou shalt bind on earth, shall be bound in heaven, and whatsoever thou shalt loose on earth, shall be loosed in heaven (Matt. 16:18–19). To him again, after His resurrection, He says, Feed My sheep. Upon him being one He builds His Church; and although He gives to all the Apostles an equal power, and says, As My Father sent Me, even so I send you; receive ye the Holy Ghost: whosoever sins ye remit, they shall be remitted to him, and whosoever sins ye shall retain, they shall be retained (John 20:21);—yet in order to manifest unity, He has by His own authority so placed the source of the same unity, as to begin from one (A Library of the Fathers of the Holy Catholic Church (Oxford: Parker, 1844), Cyprian, On The Unity of the Church 3-4, pp. 133-135).
Certainly the other Apostles also were what Peter was, endued with an equal fellowship both of honour and power; but a commencement is made from unity, that the Church may be set before as one; which one Church, in the Song of Songs, doth the Holy Spirit design and name in the Person of our Lord: My dove, My spotless one, is but one; she is the only one of her mother, elect of her that bare her (Cant. 9:6) (A Library of the Fathers of the Holy Catholic Church (Oxford: Parker, 1844), Cyprian, On The Unity of the Church 3, p. 133).
 
Got to go with scripture on this one. Infallibly does not come from any one early church father…However, James was the bishop of Jerusalem, as per tradition…and therefore James was invested with the chief rule of that city. Peter, of the entire Catholic Church!👍🙂
That’s not what scripture, nor Chrysostom says.
 
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