You’re showing your ignorance, Tom. A “literal” interpretation doesn’t mean everything in Scripture applies to everyone for all time. What was instructed by God to be done by the Jews under the Law does not apply to the believer today who is not under law (the principle of), but under grace (the principle of). A literal interpretation recognizes historical contexts, and takes into consideration figures of speech and allegories, which themselves have a literal meaning. What it does not do is randomly allegorize (spiritualize) the Scriptures to fit one’s preconceived ideas. For instance, Jew means Jew, Gentile means Gentile, church means church and Israel means Israel. The reader allows Scripture to communicate its own inherent, inerrant, truth.Such things as concordances, Greek/Hebrew dictionaries, Greek-English Interlinears, various theological works and commentaries, etc. Have you not read in the theopneustos Scriptures that:Eph 4:11-15 '…He gave some {as} apostles, and some {as} prophets, and some {as} evangelists, and some {as} pastors and teachers, for the equipping of the saints for the work of service, to the building up of the body of Christ; until we all attain to the unity of the faith, and of the knowledge of the Son of God, to a mature man, to the measure of the stature which belongs to the fullness of Christ. As a result, we are no longer to be children, tossed here and there by waves and carried about by every wind of doctrine, by the trickery of men, by craftiness in deceitful scheming; but speaking the truth in love, we are to grow up in all {aspects} into Him who is the head, {even} Christ,"God raises up teachers in the body of Christ. But nowhere does it say He raises up infallible men to govern over all the churches of Christendom. But we’re warned by Peter that false teachers will rise up among us, so all teachings of men must be tested by the Scriptures.I already told you. I use the literal, historical, grammatical method of interpretation. It’s called the “normal” method of interpretation.