So, if she is the spouse of the Holy Spirit, wouldn’t that make the Holy Spirit the father of Jesus? And if she is already “married” to God (by way of the Holy Spirit), wouldn’t it be adultery for her to be a member of the Bride of Christ?
Sheesh. Talk about mixing your metaphors… Do you really think that God LITERALLY married Mary? But even if you want to go down that rabbit trail, are you suggesting that because Mary could be called the spouse of the Holy Spirit, she is committing adultery by being included in the Church as Bride of Christ? As if Jesus and the Holy Spirit are two brothers fighting over the same girl?
Right. Of course! I should have realized it when David bowed down to his mother and set up a throne for her. Oh, wait… that DIDN’T happen! But then again, since every King after David recognized their mother as Queen, then it should be obvious. Oh, wait … that didn’t happen either! I may be wrong, but I believe Solomon was the ONLY Davidic King to bow to his mother and set up a throne for her. (I seem to recall another Queen Mother, but she became queen after the King was killed and she killed (almost) all the Kings sons. Great role model!). You’re making a claim that doesn’t stand up to close scrutiny. Even when Solomon bowed to Bathsheba, he still had to have a throne brought in for her (apparently, this was an unusual situation). And did Solomon ever address her as “Queen”?
Perhaps this is all new to you, a Protestant. You can read more about this here:
Is Mary’s Queenship Biblical?
By Edward P. Sri
catholic.com/thisrock/1998/9812fea2.asp
I suggest you accept this line of reasoning based on the say-so of the Roman Catholic Church rather than on the evidence of Scripture and history. So the doctrine was finally understood because the Pope said so? How did this “understanding” come about? Was it through a serious, in-depth study of Scriptures? If it wasn’t “understood” for more than 18 centuries AFTER the events (allegedly) took place, what was it that convinced the Pope in the middle of the 19th century to make the Immaculate Conception a dogma, and how can the Church claim this has been a “constant teaching of the Church for 2000 years”?
You’re swinging wildly here…I think you need to take a few deep breaths…maybe go for a long walk. Along the way, you might reflect on these writings from the Early Church Fathers on the Immaculate Conception dating back to the third century:
Early Church Fathers on the Immaculate Conception
Justin Martyr
[Jesus] became man by the Virgin so that the course that was taken by disobedience in the beginning through the agency of the serpent might be also the very course by which it would be put down. Eve, a virgin and undefiled, conceived the word of the serpent and bore disobedience and death. But the Virgin Mary received faith and joy when the angel Gabriel announced to her the glad tidings that the Spirit of the Lord would come upon her and the power of the Most High would overshadow her, for which reason the Holy One being born of her is the Son of God. And she replied, “Be it done unto me according to your word” (Luke 1:38) (
Dialogue with Trypho 100 [A.D. 155]).
St. Irenaeus (180 AD)
“Consequently, then, Mary the Virgin is found to be obedient, saying: ‘Behold, O Lord, your handmaid; be it done to me according to your word.’ Eve, however, was disobedient; and when yet a virgin, she did not obey… having become disobedient, was made the cause of death for herself and for the whole human race; so also Mary, betrothed to a man but nevertheless a virgin, being obedient, was made the cause of salvation for herself and for the whole human race… Thus, the knot of Eve’s disobedience was loosed by the obedience of Mary. What the virgin Eve had bound in unbelief, the virgin Mary loosed through faith.” (
Against the Heresies, Book III [A.D. 180]).
St. Irenaeus uses “virginity” as a sign of sinlessness (i.e. Mary was sinless just as Eve was sinless before the Fall).
Hippolytus
He [Jesus] was the ark formed of incorruptible wood. For by this is signified that His tabernacle [Mary] was exempt from defilement and corruption (*Orat. In Illud, Dominus pascit me, in Gallandi, Bibl. Patrum, II, 496 *ante [A.D. 235]).
Origen
This Virgin Mother of the Only-begotten of God is called Mary, worthy of God, immaculate of the immaculate, one of the one (
Homily 1 [A.D. 244]).
St. Ambrose of Milan (340-397)
“Mary, a virgin not only undefiled but a virgin whom grace has made inviolate, free from every stain.”
St. Ephraem the Syrian (c. 350)
You alone and your Mother are more beautiful than any others, for there is neither blemish in you nor any stains upon your Mother. Who of my children can compare in beauty to these? (
Nisibene Hymns 27:8
A. D. 361]).
“My Lady Most Holy, All-Pure, All-Immaculate, All-Stainless, All-Undefiled, All-Incorrupt, All-Inviolate …Spotless Robe of Him Who clothes Himself with light as with a garment …Flower unfading, purple woven by God, alone Most Immaculate.” (Ibid)
Ambrose of Milan
Come, then, and search out your sheep, not through your servants or hired men, but do it yourself. Lift me up bodily and in the flesh, which is fallen in Adam. Lift me up not from Sarah but from Mary, a Virgin not only undefiled but a Virgin whom grace had made inviolate, free of every stain of sin (
Commentary on Psalm 118:22-30 [A.D. 387]).
Gregory Nazianzen
He was conceived by the virgin, who had been first purified by the Spirit in soul and body; for, as it was fitting that childbearing should receive its share of honor, so it was necessary that virginity should receive even greater honor (
Sermon 38 [d. A.D. 390]).
St. Augustine** (c.390 AD)**
“Every personal sin must be excluded from the Blessed Virgin Mary for the sake of the honor of God.”
We must except the Holy Virgin Mary, concerning whom I wish to raise no question when it touches the subject of sins, out of honor to the Lord; for from Him we know what abundance of grace for overcoming sin in every particular was conferred upon her who had the merit to conceive and bear Him who undoubtedly had no sin (
Nature and Grace 36:42 [A.D. 415]).
The promulgation of the dogma of the Immaculate Conception simply formally defined something that the Church OBVIOUSLY held as true for more than a thousand years.
Unlike
sola scriptura and
sola fide which are non-biblical novelties by comparison.
