How many deny Jesus Christ in the Eucharist?

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I would ask you to first point out where we are told to eat His “glorified” body and drink His “glorified” blood.
You seem to have added something to the Scripture that I can’t find.
Jesus is not ALL GLORY?

The questioned begging to be asked is this:

Where does Jesus say the Eucharist is merely symbolic or it represents His Body and Blood?

You are aware that Jesus could have easily any term in Aramaic which could have said “symbol” or “represents” but He never does. Hhmmm?
 
***When Jesus told his disciples that “my flesh is real food and my blood real drink” (John 6:55), his disciples took him literally and said: “This sort of talk is hard to endure! How can anyone take it seriously?” (John 6:60). Then St. John’s Gospel reports: “Jesus was
fully aware that his disciples were murmuring in protest at what he had said. ‘Does it shake your faith?’ he asked them. ‘What, then, if you were to see the Son of Man ascend to where he was before . . .?’” (John 6:61-62). John then states that “From this time on, many of his disciples broke away and would not remain in his company any longer. Jesus then said to the Twelve, 'Do you want to leave me too?”’ (John 6:66-67). Unlike those that walked away, and unlike “Judas” who deceived everyone, the Twelve stayed with Jesus because they trusted his words (John 6:69-71).

You skipped Jn 6:68 Simon Peter answered him, “Lord, to whom shall we go? **You have the words of eternal life. **
Rom 10:17 …faith comes from hearing the message, and the message is heard through the word of Christ

1 Ptr 2:2, 1 Cor 3:1-2, Heb 5:12-14 The word of God is represented as food.

Matt 4:4 Jesus answered, “It is written: ‘Man does not live on bread alone, but on every word that comes from the mouth of God.
 
Your argument falls apart when you consider that Stephen, Paul, and John saw Christ standing in Heaven and not physically standing on earth.
Stephen and Paul saw Jesus, but Christ was in heaven. John was in the Spirit iin heaven.

After the resurrection, Christ appeared to many. But that was before the ascension. So we still wait the coming of the Lord as 1 Cor 11 states while breaking bread.
First of all, it was argued by both of you that we don’t see Jesus after He ascended into heaven. The point of those passages was to demonstrate that Jesus has been seen … in bodily formafter He ascended into heaven. So at least you now admit that Jesus has been seen in bodily form after the resurrection. This means that those Scriptures that you’ve cited earlier are qualified, that it does not mean Jesus will never be seen prior to His Second Coming.

So then, did Jesus contradict Himself? No. To see Christ in bodily form can mean different things, just as to “see God” can mean different things. Take for example the following verses:

Genesis 32:30

30So Jacob named the place Peniel, for he said, "I have seen God face to face, yet my life has been preserved."

Isaiah 6:1

In the year of King Uzziah’s death I saw the Lord sitting on a throne, lofty and exalted, with the train of His robe filling the temple.

Daniel 7:9,13

9 “** I watched till thrones were put in place,
And the Ancient of Days was seated;
His garment was white as snow,
And the hair of His head was like pure wool.**
** 13 “ I was watching in the night visions,
And behold, One like the Son of Man,
Coming with the clouds of heaven!
He came to the Ancient of Days,
And they brought Him near before Him**.

All three in these passages said they have seen God. In the case of Daniel, not only does He see God the Father (the Ancient of Days), but also God the Son (the Son of Man). Also see Revelation 4:2-3. And yet we have a passage in John 1:1 that clearly states:

1 John 4:12

18No one has seen God at any time…;

Is the Bible contradicting itself? No, because while the apparently contradictory verses both refer to “physical” sight, they are talking about seeing God in different forms. Same thing with seeing Christ. Christ has been seen with "“physical” sight since He ascended into heaven, so the passage on His Second Coming cannot be referring to Christ never being seen until His Second Coming because that would make Christ contradict Himself or a liar. No, that passage is talking about how He will be seen. At His Second Coming Christ will be seen in all His glory and will openly be seen by all mankind. We will not see Him in that manner until His Second Coming. In the Eucharist, we do not see Christ the same way we will see Christ at His Second Coming or even the same way the apostles saw Him when He walked this earth. We see Him now with the eyes of faith, knowing that behind the appearances of bread and wine Christ is truly and substantially present. You don’t have to see with the physical eyes to know someone is present.

Now I have a question, since both of you emphasize that Christ was in heaven when He was seen. I want to shift now from sight to presence. Is the Holy Spirit in heaven? Is He also present here on this earth? Is Christ not present on this earth at all?

God Bless,
Michael
 
You skipped Jn 6:68 Simon Peter answered him, “Lord, to whom shall we go? **You have the words of eternal life. **
Rom 10:17 …faith comes from hearing the message, and the message is heard through the word of Christ

1 Ptr 2:2, 1 Cor 3:1-2, Heb 5:12-14 The word of God is represented as food.

Matt 4:4 Jesus answered, “It is written: ‘Man does not live on bread alone, but on every word that comes from the mouth of God.
And I have a question for you. What does that message contain?

God Bless,
Michael
 
I would ask you to first point out where we are told to eat His “glorified” body and drink His “glorified” blood.
You seem to have added something to the Scripture that I can’t find.
It is found in John 6 by those who accept the clear meaning of Christ’s words.

God Bless,
Michael
 
You skipped Jn 6:68 Simon Peter answered him, “Lord, to whom shall we go? **You have the words of eternal life. **
Rom 10:17 …faith comes from hearing the message, and the message is heard through the word of Christ

1 Ptr 2:2, 1 Cor 3:1-2, Heb 5:12-14 The word of God is represented as food.

Matt 4:4 Jesus answered, “It is written: ‘Man does not live on bread alone, but on every word that comes from the mouth of God.
Since you restated your argument, I will restate my response.

Peter simply said that Christ has the words of eternal life after Jesus asked them if they wanted to leave too. But let’s read what Peter says:

**68Simon Peter answered Him, “Lord, to whom shall we go? You have words of eternal life.
69"We have believed and have come to know that You are the Holy One of God.” **

In other words, Peter says Jesus has the “words of eternal life” because He believes they are the words of God, that they are divinely revealed. And they believe they are divinely revealed because they believe Jesus was sent by the Father (i.e You are the Holy one of God) and hence His words are the words of the Father. This is a variant of John 3:34

34"For He whom God has sent speaks the words of God; for He gives the Spirit without measure.

So Peter is not giving the meaning of Christ’s supposed figurative words, but rather publicly accepting what Christ just taught as the words of God (i.e. words of eternal life) because they believe Christ was sent by the Father. So they are accepting His words on faith and not because they fully understand them. And Christ’s words (i.e. HIS TEACHINGS) include several very literal and real truths (ex. his literal death and resurrection), including His teaching on the Eucharist.

Peter is referring to the divine origin of the words of Christ and the content of those words include Christ’s teaching regarding eating His Body and drink His Blood. So Peter is not giving an interpretion of what Jesus said, but pointing to the origin of what Jesus said regarding eating His Body and Blood. That this teaching is a word that has come forth from the mouth of God.

God Bless,
Michael
 
Jesus is not ALL GLORY?

The questioned begging to be asked is this:

Where does Jesus say the Eucharist is merely symbolic or it represents His Body and Blood??\
Heb 5, 1 Ptr 2, and 1 Cor 3: Food represents the word of God.

4 passages in John 6
50 But here is the bread that comes down from heaven, which a man may eat and not die
51 I am the living bread that came down from heaven. If anyone eats of this bread, he will live forever
54 Whoever eats my flesh and drinks my blood has eternal life,8 Simon Peter answered him, “Lord, to whom shall we go? You have the words of eternal life (ie. Gospel message)

Rom 10:17 Faith comes from hearing the message, and the message is heard through the word of Christ.
You are aware that Jesus could have easily any term in Aramaic which could have said “symbol” or “represents” but He never does. Hhmmm?
Yes. What’s that prove? Nothing!

In Matt 16, Jesus did not have to use the word “yeast” when describing the teachings of the Pharisees and Sadducees.
 
Heb 5, 1 Ptr 2, and 1 Cor 3: Food represents the word of God.

4 passages in John 6
50 But here is the bread that comes down from heaven, which a man may eat and not die
51 I am the living bread that came down from heaven. If anyone eats of this bread, he will live forever
54 Whoever eats my flesh and drinks my blood has eternal life,8 Simon Peter answered him, “Lord, to whom shall we go? You have the words of eternal life (ie. Gospel message)

Rom 10:17 Faith comes from hearing the message, and the message is heard through the word of Christ.

Yes. What’s that prove? Nothing!

In Matt 16, Jesus did not have to use the word “yeast” when describing the teachings of the Pharisees and Sadducees.
I do not think so! If Jesus meant it to be symbolic,he would have made it very clear and those you could “NOT ACCEPT THIS TEACHING” would have not left the scene. Jesus would have corrected their misunderstanding as He clearly does throughout the NT.

What does it prove? It proves EVERYTHING! He Jesus wanted it to be SYMBOLIC,a VITAL teaching regarding salvation,He most certainly would have used the term meaning symbolic.He never does and that alone PROVES EVERYTHING!

If the NT writers wanted it to be symbolic,they themselves would have made the correct interpretation using the proper term in the Greek to mean symbolic. Guess what? The NT writer never once uses the term to mean ‘symbolic’ or ‘represents’ .

Again,provide me the ancient historical writings the early church taught it as being only symbolic?

And as usual,not you or any believer of a symbolic Eucharist has not and will not provide the empirical an historical writings by the early Christians teaching it was symbolic.

No offense,but your position is NOVEL and history proves it over and over!
 
Heb 5, 1 Ptr 2, and 1 Cor 3: Food represents the word of God.

4 passages in John 6
50 But here is the bread that comes down from heaven, which a man may eat and not die
51 I am the living bread that came down from heaven. If anyone eats of this bread, he will live forever
54 Whoever eats my flesh and drinks my blood has eternal life,8 Simon Peter answered him, “Lord, to whom shall we go? You have the words of eternal life (ie. Gospel message)


The problem with your interpretation is that Jesus does not identify the object that is being eaten as His words. He states:

John 6:57 (KJV)

57As the living Father hath sent me, and I live by the Father: so he that EATETH ME, even he shall live by me

**57"As the living Father sent Me, and I live because of the Father, so he who eats Me, he also will live because of Me. ** (NASB)

He doesn’t say the one who eats of feeds on my words. He says the one who eats or feed on ME. Christ is identified as the food, not His words.

And what are the words He spoke? His command and teaching regarding eating His Body and Blood. The eating of His Body and Blood are the content of His words, the teaching He has just revealed. Peter is not giving us an interpretation of what Christ said. He is saying that what Christ said… that we must eat His Flesh and drink His blood … is divinely revealed teaching.

God Bless,
Michael
 
You skipped Jn 6:68 Simon Peter answered him, “Lord, to whom shall we go? **You have the words of eternal life. **
Rom 10:17 …faith comes from hearing the message, and the message is heard through the word of Christ

1 Ptr 2:2, 1 Cor 3:1-2, Heb 5:12-14 The word of God is represented as food.

Matt 4:4 Jesus answered, “It is written: ‘Man does not live on bread alone, but on every word that comes from the mouth of God.
:tsktsk: Did you read my whole post? I said it’s a mystery and you can accept that you will never fully wrap your mind around it–none of us will. You know your Bible very well and I am happy you are my brother in Christ! Sadly, your view of Catholics is biased and needs a fresh look at Scripture.

Why are you here if not to prove us wrong? Try to look at our side with new eyes. Peace to you.
 
First of all, it was argued by both of you that we don’t see Jesus after He ascended into heaven. The point of those passages was to demonstrate that Jesus has been seen … in bodily formafter He ascended into heaven. So at least you now admit that Jesus has been seen in bodily form after the resurrection. This means that those Scriptures that you’ve cited earlier are qualified, that it does not mean Jesus will never be seen prior to His Second Coming.

Christ has been seen with "“physical” sight since He ascended into heaven, so the passage on His Second Coming cannot be referring to Christ never being seen until His Second Coming because that would make Christ contradict Himself or a liar. No, that passage is talking about how He will be seen. At His Second Coming Christ will be seen in all His glory and will openly be seen by all mankind. We will not see Him in that manner until His Second Coming. In the Eucharist, we do not see Christ the same way we will see Christ at His Second Coming or even the same way the apostles saw Him when He walked this earth. We see Him now with the eyes of faith, knowing that behind the appearances of bread and wine Christ is truly and substantially present. You don’t have to see with the physical eyes to know someone is present.
You are assuming that Paul and John saw Christ with their physical eyes.
Paul said that he did not know whether he was in the spirit or in the body when he ascended to the third Heaven.
John said that he was in the spirit.
Stephen said that he saw Christ, but no other person present could see the same vision as Stephen with their physical eyes, which seems to indicate it was not seeing by physical vision.
Now I have a question, since both of you emphasize that Christ was in heaven when He was seen. I want to shift now from sight to presence. Is the Holy Spirit in heaven? Is He also present here on this earth? Is Christ not present on this earth at all?

God Bless,
Michael
Jesus as God has always been omnipresent spiritually. The same goes for the Holy Spirit as God.
Jesus never was described as being physically in two places at once while He was on this earth. Even in His glorified body, Jesus was never described as being physically in two places at once.
Notice how He told Mary not to touch Him, since He had not physically gone to the Father yet. Why would Christ speak such, if being physically in more than one place was part of having a glorified body?
 
You are assuming that Paul and John saw Christ with their physical eyes.
Paul said that he did not know whether he was in the spirit or in the body when he ascended to the third Heaven.
John said that he was in the spirit.
Stephen said that he saw Christ, but no other person present could see the same vision as Stephen with their physical eyes, which seems to indicate it was not seeing by physical vision.
Acts 7:55–56

**55But being full of the Holy Spirit, he gazed intently into heaven and saw the glory of God, and Jesus standing at the right hand of God;
56and he said, “Behold, I see the heavens opened up and te Son of Man standing at the right hand of God.” **

And what did Stephen use to *gaze intently *into heaven? His eyes. The point is He saw Jesus in bodily form.
Jesus as God has always been omnipresent spiritually. The same goes for the Holy Spirit as God.
Jesus never was described as being physically in two places at once while He was on this earth. Even in His glorified body, Jesus was never described as being physically in two places at once.
Notice how He told Mary not to touch Him, since He had not physically gone to the Father yet. Why would Christ speak such, if being physically in more than one place was part of having a glorified body?
And is there a Scripture that says He couldn’t? Normal bodies normally don’t enter rooms when the door is shut. Jesus did (John 20:19, 26). What is impossible for a mere human is not necessarily impossible for the God-Man.

God Bless,
Michael
 
There were obvious exceptions to obeying the ordinances of the Law, when circumstances prevented such obedience. Jesus pointed that out when He spoke of David and others.
The Law was meant to benefit man, not harm man.

You still will have a serious problem explaining how Jesus came to fulfill the Law, if you want to claim that He made an exception and completely reversed the requirements of one of those laws. It would show a serious inconsistency in the requirement for obedience to God’s Law. Jesus never sinned and He was never inconsistent.
I have another question. The original precept makes no reference to exceptions. On what authority do you claim there are obvious exceptions, other than on mere human logic?

Also, an exception can mean that that act was never intended to be prohibited by the Law. So, in fact, it is not a reversal or violation because the Law never intended to prohibit the exception in the first place. So Jesus would not have been inconsistent.

I provided one example, which you have ignored, in which the Law prohibits a man marrying his brother’s wife in Leviticus 20:21 and then makes an exception in Deuteronomy 25:5-6. Jesus knows the Law better than you or I and I believe He would know if His blood was covered by the prohibition or was an exception. He mandated and hence it is a revealed exception, God never intending to prohibit the drinking of Christ’s Blood in the first place.

God Bless,
Michael
 
Jesus clearly identifies the “bread” He will give and it is not His word:

**51… and the bread that I shall give is My flesh, which I shall give for the life of the world.” **

Jesus does not say that “the bread that I shall give is my teaching” or “my word.” He clearly identified the bread that He gives as His Flesh.

God Bless,
Michael
 
I have another question. The original precept makes no reference to exceptions. On what authority do you claim there are obvious exceptions, other than on mere human logic?

Also, an exception can mean that that act was never intended to be prohibited by the Law. So, in fact, it is not a reversal or violation because the Law never intended to prohibit the exception in the first place. So Jesus would not have been inconsistent.

I provided one example, which you have ignored, in which the Law prohibits a man marrying his brother’s wife in Leviticus 20:21 and then makes an exception in Deuteronomy 25:5-6. Jesus knows the Law better than you or I and I believe He would know if His blood was covered by the prohibition or was an exception. He mandated and hence it is a revealed exception, God never intending to prohibit the drinking of Christ’s Blood in the first place.

God Bless,
Michael
I’m having difficulty understanding your statement declaring, “an exception can mean that that act was never intended to be prohibited by the Law”.
It makes the Law out to have been less than clear and definite in its declarations.
I would say that Levticus 17 was extremely clear about not eating ANY MANNER of blood.
Jesus said that He came to fulfill every bit of the Law.
Such fulfillment would not make sense, if Jesus “fulfills it” by completely reversing what the Law declares.
This “revealed exception” term sounds similar to the “new light” explanations of the JWs.
 
Jesus never was described as being physically in two places at once while He was on this earth. Even in His glorified body, Jesus was never described as being physically in two places at once.
brkn1,

I’m not sure you are objecting to the Catholic doctrine here. Christ isn’t present in the Eucharist in the manner in which a body is in a place.

VC
 
I would ask you to first point out where we are told to eat His “glorified” body and drink His “glorified” blood.
You seem to have added something to the Scripture that I can’t find.
John 6. I describe it as glorified for two reasons, one, everything of Jesus is glorified. Two, for some reason His body is not pouring out blood after the Ressurection, and He is alive after dying. How would you describe it?

I find it amazing that some find it incomprehensible that Catholics following the explicit teaching of Jesus to eat His body and blood based on some Levitical dietary laws they don’t even follow. Or is there a big Protestant push to outlaw rare and medium rare steaks? I guess some Christians still don’t believe Jesus’ teaching the if you have the faith of a mustard seed you could tell a mountain to jump into the sea and it would do it. Somehow Catholics obeying His explicit teaching don’t believe Jesus could or would give us His body and blood as the new Paschal sacrifice.

Maybe a Protestant could explain how you have obeyed the commandment to eat the Paschal lamb?
 
I’m having difficulty understanding your statement declaring, “an exception can mean that that act was never intended to be prohibited by the Law”.
It makes the Law out to have been less than clear and definite in its declarations.
I would say that Levticus 17 was extremely clear about not eating ANY MANNER of blood.
Jesus said that He came to fulfill every bit of the Law.
Such fulfillment would not make sense, if Jesus “fulfills it” by completely reversing what the Law declares.
This “revealed exception” term sounds similar to the “new light” explanations of the JWs.
The difference between a ¨revealed exception¨ and a ¨new light¨ is that the former is given by the God-Man Himself while the latter is an invention of Jehovah’s Witnesses. I don’t think one can compare something Jesus does with the JWs.

When I say that an exception can mean that the act was never intended to be prohibited by the Law, I mean that God did not have that particular act in view when He establised the law and so it was never meant to be included under the prohibtion. Since it was never meant to be included, it’s an exception. So, for example, when God establishes the prohibition against a man marrying his brother’s wife, we know that God never intended to include the levirate marriage under that prohibition. Why? Because He reveals in Deuteronomy that there is one instance in which a man marrying His brother’s wife is not only allowed, but an obligation. So the levirate marriage is a revealed exception to the general prohibition againt a man marrying His brother’s wife. God is not contradicting Himself because the levirate marriage was never intended to be within the purview of the law prohibiting a man marrying his brother’s wife found in Leviticus.

Another example is David’s eating of the consecrated bread. The laws regulating the consecrated bread make no reference to any exceptions. So if we go by the letter of the law, there are no exceptions because there are none mentioned. So, according to the letter of the law, David did something unlawful:

4how he entered the house of God, and they ate the consecrated bread, which was not lawful for him to eat nor for those with him, but for the priests alone?

The consecrated bread, according to the Law, was for the priests alone. It was prohibited for a layman to eat consecrated bread. But did David sin? If David sinned, then I highly doubt Jesus would have used him as an example to defend His apostles’ actions on the sabbath. David did not sin because his act was never intended to be within the purview of that law. It was an unstated exception.

Just because the letter of the law does not mention any exceptions, it does not mean that there are no exceptions. So while the letter of the law seemingly prohibits the drinking of the blood of Christ… just as the letter of the law seemingly prohibited David from eating the consecrated bread… the original purpose and scope of the law never included the drinking of Christ’s blood under its prohibition… just as the original purpose and scope of the regulations regarding the consecrated bread never included the particular act David committed. So, in effect, Jesus did not violate any laws because what He commanded to do was never intended to be prohibited by the Law. And how do we know that? Because by the sheer fact that He gives this command, Christ is revealing that the drinking of His blood was not within the purview of that law, just as the sheer fact that God commands the levirate marriage reveals that the levirate marriage was not within the purview of the law prohibiting a man from marrying his brother’s wife. Christ, as God, knows perfectly what was the purpose and scope of every commandment of the Mosaic Law… as demonstrated in his discussions with the Pharisees regarding the sabbath. So His command for us to drink His blood reveals that this was never intended to be prohibited by the Law and hence it is not a violation.

God Bless,
Michael
 
brkn1,

I’m not sure you are objecting to the Catholic doctrine here. Christ isn’t present in the Eucharist in the manner in which a body is in a place.

VC
Maybe you can see why I might be confused by such a claim though.

I understand that Catholics believe the elements to be the actual physical body and physical blood of Christ in another form. If this were true, then Christ could be said to be physically present in the elements, regardless of the manner.
Christ would still be just as present both ways in the Eucharist according to Catholic doctrine.
 
John 6. I describe it as glorified for two reasons, one, everything of Jesus is glorified. Two, for some reason His body is not pouring out blood after the Ressurection, and He is alive after dying. How would you describe it?

I find it amazing that some find it incomprehensible that Catholics following the explicit teaching of Jesus to eat His body and blood based on some Levitical dietary laws they don’t even follow. Or is there a big Protestant push to outlaw rare and medium rare steaks? I guess some Christians still don’t believe Jesus’ teaching the if you have the faith of a mustard seed you could tell a mountain to jump into the sea and it would do it. Somehow Catholics obeying His explicit teaching don’t believe Jesus could or would give us His body and blood as the new Paschal sacrifice.

Maybe a Protestant could explain how you have obeyed the commandment to eat the Paschal lamb?
I do not find the same explicitness in how a “necessary priesthood” also came out of the way you interpret Jesus’ command to break bread and drink wine in remembrance of Him and what He was going to do in His one real Sacrifice, which happened the next day.
 
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